Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that

• A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
• B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
• C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
• D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.

2. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

3. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperglycemia. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) contains a high glucose content, which can lead to elevated blood sugar levels, resulting in hyperglycemia. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is crucial in clients receiving TPN to prevent complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because TPN is more likely to cause hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, or hyponatremia.

4. To prevent keratitis in an unconscious client, where should the nurse apply moisturizing ointment?

• A. Finger and toenail quicks
• B. Eyes
• C. Perianal area
• D. External ear canals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eyes. Applying moisturizing ointment to the eyes helps prevent keratitis, a condition that can occur due to inadequate blinking in unconscious clients, leading to corneal dryness and potential damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as moisturizing ointment should not be applied to finger and toenail quicks, perianal area, or external ear canals to prevent keratitis.

5. Which family planning method is not advisable for women with extremely irregular menstrual periods?

• A. oral contraceptives
• B. diaphragm
• C. natural family planning
• D. vaginal contraceptives

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Natural family planning relies on tracking menstrual cycles to determine fertile days for avoiding or achieving pregnancy. It may not be suitable for women with extremely irregular menstrual periods as it can be challenging to predict fertile days accurately. Oral contraceptives (A), diaphragms (B), and vaginal contraceptives (D) do not rely on regular menstrual cycles for their effectiveness, making them more suitable options for women with irregular periods.

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