Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that

• A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
• B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
• C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
• D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.

2. The appropriate order of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes:

• A. Cord clamping and cutting, controlled cord traction, ergometrine administration, and inspection to ensure the placenta is intact.
• B. Intravenous oxytocin, cord clamping and cutting, and fundal massage.
• C. Intramuscular injection of oxytocin, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus, and uterine massage.
• D. Controlled cord traction, fundal massage, and oxytocin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct sequence of steps in active management of the third stage of labor includes intramuscular injection of oxytocin to prevent postpartum hemorrhage, controlled cord traction with counter traction to the uterus to facilitate placental delivery, and uterine massage to aid in uterine contraction and prevent excessive bleeding. Choice A is incorrect because ergometrine administration is not routinely recommended in active management. Choice B is incorrect as intravenous oxytocin is not the preferred route of administration. Choice D is incorrect as the order of steps is not accurate.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

4. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

• A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
• B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
• C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
• D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

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