HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child with a greenstick fracture. In explaining this type of fracture to the parents, the best response by the nurse should be that
- A. A child's bone is more flexible and can be bent 45 degrees before breaking
- B. Bones of children are more porous than adults and often have incomplete breaks
- C. Compression of porous bones produces a buckle or torus type break
- D. Bone fragments often remain attached by a periosteal hinge
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Greenstick fractures are common in children because their bones are softer and more porous than adult bones, leading to incomplete breaks when force is applied. Choice A is incorrect as greenstick fractures are not due to bone flexibility but rather the porous nature of children's bones. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a buckle or torus type break, which is not characteristic of a greenstick fracture. Choice D is incorrect as greenstick fractures do not involve bone fragments remaining attached by a periosteal hinge.
2. A public health nurse can say that she is beginning to achieve her goal of more optimal health for her community when:
- A. people learn self-care
- B. people become involved in determining health care policy
- C. all these indicators are present
- D. people assume responsibility for their own health
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Achieving optimal health for a community involves multiple factors and indicators. For a public health nurse to begin achieving this goal, it is essential that all relevant indicators are present, not just one or a few. While choices A, B, and D are important components of promoting community health, optimal health for a community encompasses a comprehensive approach where all indicators are considered and addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.
3. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
- B. Hematocrit of 55%
- C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
- D. Positive Coombs test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.
4. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:
- A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
- B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
- C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.
5. A client tells the nurse he is fearful of planned surgery because of evil thoughts about a family member. What is the best initial response by the nurse?
- A. Call a chaplain
- B. Deny the feelings
- C. Cite recovery statistics
- D. Listen to the client
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to listen to the client. Listening allows the nurse to establish therapeutic communication, understand the client's fears and concerns, provide emotional support, and help alleviate anxiety. Calling a chaplain (Choice A) may be appropriate if the client requests spiritual support but should not be the initial response. Denying the feelings (Choice B) is dismissive and can hinder trust and communication. Citing recovery statistics (Choice C) is irrelevant and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.
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