a nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of fallot that indicates an elevated rbc count what does the nurse identify as th
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Nursing Elites

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Pediatrics HESI 2023

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the professional identify as the cause of the polycythemia?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs as the body's response to chronic hypoxia by increasing RBC production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, the heart's structure causes reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This chronic hypoxia stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, leading to an elevated RBC count. Choice A is incorrect as low blood pressure is not directly related to polycythemia in this context. Choice C, diminished iron level, is not the cause of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is not the primary cause of the elevated RBC count in this case.

2. A child with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is being treated with corticosteroids. What is an important nursing consideration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a child with nephrotic syndrome is undergoing treatment with corticosteroids, it is crucial to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids can suppress the immune system, increasing the child's susceptibility to infections. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention, reducing the risk of complications. While monitoring blood pressure (choice B) is important in nephrotic syndrome, it is not the most immediate concern when the child is on corticosteroids. Monitoring for hyperglycemia (choice C) is relevant in corticosteroid therapy, but the priority in this scenario is to watch for signs of infection. Monitoring for hypertension (choice D) is important in nephrotic syndrome but is not the most critical consideration when the child is on corticosteroids.

3. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who has difficulty breathing and prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These clinical manifestations can be associated with trauma, such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS), which can lead to severe head injuries and respiratory compromise. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation (Choice A) is more related to prematurity complications rather than SBS. The absence of stridor and adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) may not be specific indicators of SBS. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds (Choice C) alone may not be as concerning as the presence of retractions and use of accessory muscles in the context of a distressed infant.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU). What diet should the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-phenylalanine diet is required for infants with PKU to prevent the buildup of phenylalanine, which can lead to brain damage.

5. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.

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