Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the professional identify as the cause of the polycythemia?

• A. Low tissue oxygen needs
• B. Tissue oxygen needs
• C. Diminished iron level
• D. Hypertrophic cardiac muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs as the body's response to chronic hypoxia by increasing RBC production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, the heart's structure causes reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This chronic hypoxia stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, leading to an elevated RBC count. Choice A is incorrect as low blood pressure is not directly related to polycythemia in this context. Choice C, diminished iron level, is not the cause of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is not the primary cause of the elevated RBC count in this case.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant with phenylketonuria (PKU). What diet should the nurse anticipate will be ordered by the health care provider?

• A. Fat-free
• B. Protein-enriched
• C. Phenylalanine-free
• D. Low-phenylalanine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A low-phenylalanine diet is required for infants with PKU to prevent the buildup of phenylalanine, which can lead to brain damage.

3. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?

• A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
• B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
• C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
• D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: By 11 months of age, the recommended vaccines for infants include diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. These vaccines are part of the routine immunization schedule to protect infants from serious infectious diseases. Choice A is incorrect because measles is not typically administered at this age. Choice C is incorrect because rubella and tuberculosis are not part of routine infant immunizations. Choice D is incorrect because measles, mumps, and rubella are usually given as a combination vaccine later in childhood, not at 11 months of age.

4. A child with a diagnosis of celiac disease is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid dairy products
• B. Avoid gluten
• C. Avoid high-fat foods
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid gluten.' Celiac disease is a condition in which the immune system reacts to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Avoiding gluten is essential in managing celiac disease as it helps prevent damage to the small intestine and alleviate symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dairy products, high-fat foods, and foods high in sugar do not directly relate to the management of celiac disease. It is crucial to focus on eliminating gluten-containing foods to effectively control the condition.

5. A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is being discharged from the hospital. What is important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels once a day
• B. Follow a strict meal plan
• C. Administer insulin only when blood glucose is high
• D. Recognize signs of hypoglycemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is essential for managing type 1 diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia, which occurs when blood glucose levels drop too low, can be dangerous and requires immediate intervention to prevent severe complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels more frequently than once a day, following a strict meal plan, and administering insulin only when blood glucose is high are important aspects of diabetes management but recognizing signs of hypoglycemia is crucial as it enables prompt action to prevent adverse outcomes.

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