the nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd who is experiencing shortness of breath what is the priority nursing i
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Exam 1

1. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing in COPD patients. While administering bronchodilator therapy as prescribed (Choice A) is important, it is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises (Choice B) can be beneficial but do not take precedence over positioning for improved respiratory function. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (Choice D) can be considered after the initial positioning to relieve respiratory distress, making it a later intervention.

2. The client is being taught about a low-sodium diet. Which food should the client avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Canned vegetables. Canned vegetables are often high in sodium due to the preservation process, so they should be avoided on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits (choice A), fresh chicken (choice C), and unsalted nuts (choice D) are all low-sodium options and can be included in a low-sodium diet. It is important to choose fresh or frozen vegetables over canned ones to reduce sodium intake. Fresh chicken and unsalted nuts are also good protein sources that are naturally low in sodium, making them suitable for a low-sodium diet. Therefore, clients following a low-sodium diet should prioritize fresh, whole foods over processed or canned options.

3. A client reports pain after medication administration. What is the next best step for the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to reassess the client’s pain. Reassessment is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the initial intervention. By reassessing, the nurse can determine if the current pain management plan is adequate or if further interventions are required. Increasing the pain medication dose without reassessment can lead to overmedication and potential adverse effects. Applying a cold compress may not address the underlying cause of the pain and should be based on a proper assessment. Contacting the healthcare provider should be considered if the reassessment indicates a need for further evaluation or intervention beyond the nurse's scope of practice.

4. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

5. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

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