Nursing Elites

1. The mother of a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB) asks why her child must be kept NPO. Which response would be the most correct?

• A. The epinephrine given causes nausea and vomiting.
• B. The child is being hydrated with IV fluids.
• C. The child is not hungry.
• D. The child's rapid respirations pose a risk for aspiration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because rapid respirations predispose to aspiration in a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis. Choice A is incorrect because epinephrine does not directly relate to the need for NPO status. Choice B is incorrect as hydration with IV fluids is not the primary reason for keeping the child NPO. Choice C is incorrect as the child being hungry is not the main concern when keeping a child NPO in this situation.

2. Laboratory findings indicate that a client’s serum potassium level is 2.5 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer potassium supplements orally.
• B. Increase the client's dietary potassium intake.
• C. Inform the healthcare provider of the need for potassium replacement.
• D. Monitor the client's ECG continuously.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low, indicating severe hypokalemia. In this situation, it is essential for the nurse to inform the healthcare provider promptly about the need for potassium replacement. Administering potassium supplements orally or increasing dietary potassium intake is not appropriate in cases of critically low potassium levels as immediate and precise replacement is necessary. Monitoring the client's ECG continuously is important in severe cases of hypokalemia, but the priority action should be to inform the healthcare provider for further management and treatment.

3. Which nursing intervention promotes achievement of the goal 'optimal mobility' for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago?

• A. Encourage the client to use an abductor pillow when ambulating.
• B. Teach the client to perform leg exercises in bed.
• C. Assist the client to sit at the edge of the bed.
• D. Assist the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assisting the client to turn while an abductor pillow is between the legs is the correct intervention to promote optimal mobility for a client who had a total hip replacement 8 hours ago. Using an abductor pillow helps maintain hip alignment and prevents dislocation, which are crucial considerations in the early postoperative period. Encouraging the client to use an abductor pillow when turning is more beneficial compared to the other options: teaching leg exercises in bed, encouraging the use of a walker when ambulating, or assisting the client to sit at the edge of the bed, as these interventions may not directly address the specific needs of a client after a total hip replacement.

4. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?

• A. Malnutrition
• B. Anemia
• C. Bone pain
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.

5. An adolescent female asks the nurse about taking retinoic acid (Accutane). What guidance should be provided by the nurse?

• A. The medication should be used for 10 weeks only.
• B. The medication requires that sexually active females use contraception.
• C. The medication lowers hemoglobin levels very quickly.
• D. The medication has few side effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct guidance the nurse should provide is that sexually active females must use contraception while taking Accutane and for 1 month after the 20 weeks it is prescribed. Choice A is incorrect because Accutane is typically taken for a longer duration than 10 weeks. Choice C is incorrect because Accutane does not lower hemoglobin levels quickly. Choice D is incorrect as Accutane is known for having many side effects, including the risk of birth defects.

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