HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
2. A child with glomerulonephritis is admitted in the acute edematous phase. Based on this diagnosis, which nursing intervention should the PN plan to include in the child's plan of care?
- A. Recommend parents bring favorite snacks
- B. Encourage ambulation daily to the playroom
- C. Measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours
- D. Offer a selection of fresh fruit for each meal
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to measure blood pressure every 4 to 6 hours. In glomerulonephritis, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as hypertension is a common complication. This helps in assessing the child's condition and response to treatment. Choice A, recommending parents bring favorite snacks, is not related to managing glomerulonephritis. Choice B, encouraging ambulation daily to the playroom, may not be appropriate during the acute edematous phase when the child may be experiencing fluid overload. Choice D, offering a selection of fresh fruit for each meal, is not directly relevant to managing the complications of glomerulonephritis.
3. The PN is reviewing instructions for the use of pilocarpine eye drops with a client who has glaucoma. The client replies that the drops are used to anesthetize the eye if eye pain is experienced. What action should the PN implement?
- A. Document in the chart that the client understands the correct action and use of eye drops
- B. Reassure the client that the drops will not be needed often since eye pain in glaucoma is not common
- C. Reteach the client about the action of the eye drops to decrease pressure in the eyes
- D. Explain to the client that the eye drops do not anesthetize the eyes but reduce pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pilocarpine eye drops are used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma, not to anesthetize the eye. The PN should reteach the client about the purpose of the medication to ensure proper use and understanding, which is crucial for effective treatment. Choice A is incorrect because just documenting understanding without addressing the client's misconception is not enough. Choice B is incorrect as it provides incorrect information about the purpose of the eye drops and may lead to further misunderstanding. Choice D is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information stating that the drops provide pain relief, which is not their primary purpose.
4. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. Which immediate intervention should the PN implement?
- A. Stimulate the infant to cry
- B. Give oxygen by positive pressure
- C. Suction the oral and nasal passages
- D. Turn the infant onto the right side
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is the correct immediate intervention in this scenario. Regurgitation leading to cyanosis indicates a potential airway obstruction, which requires prompt action to clear. Stimulating the infant to cry (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue of airway obstruction. Giving oxygen by positive pressure (Choice B) can be beneficial, but clearing the airway obstruction takes precedence. Turning the infant onto the right side (Choice D) does not directly address the need to clear the airway.
5. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?
- A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
- B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
- C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
- D. Protect skin from injury and bruising
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.
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