Nursing Elites

1. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

2. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing a pressure ulcer?

• A. High-protein diet
• B. Frequent repositioning
• C. Immobility
• D. Active range of motion exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immobility is a significant risk factor for pressure ulcers because it leads to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body, reducing blood flow and leading to tissue breakdown. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A high-protein diet can actually aid in wound healing and tissue repair. Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, reducing the risk of pressure ulcers. Active range of motion exercises can improve circulation and prevent muscle atrophy, thereby reducing the risk of pressure ulcers.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.

4. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the PN document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but can still eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. High evening glucose levels indicate that the morning dose of NPH insulin may be insufficient to control blood sugar throughout the day. Choice A is incorrect as cold and numb feet are more indicative of a circulation issue rather than an insulin inadequacy. Choice B suggests a wound infection rather than inadequate insulin. Choice D, nausea in the morning, may be due to other causes and does not necessarily indicate inadequate insulin dosage.

5. A client reports being able to swallow only small bites of solid food and liquids for the last 3 months. The PN should assess the client for what additional information?

• A. Past traumatic injury to the neck
• B. Daily consumption of hot beverages
• C. History of alcohol or tobacco use
• D. Daily dietary intake of roughage

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: History of alcohol or tobacco use. A history of alcohol or tobacco use is significant as both are risk factors for esophageal cancer or other esophageal disorders that could cause difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). This information helps in evaluating the underlying cause of the symptom. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in this context. While a past traumatic injury to the neck could potentially cause swallowing difficulties, given the chronic nature of the symptom in this case, it is more important to focus on potential risk factors associated with esophageal disorders like alcohol and tobacco use. Daily consumption of hot beverages and daily dietary intake of roughage are less likely to be directly related to the client's current swallowing issue.

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