HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
2. A nurse is completing a focused assessment of an older adult's skin. The nurse notes a crusted 0.7 cm lesion on the client's forehead. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Report the finding to the healthcare provider
- B. Place a clear occlusive dressing over the site
- C. Apply a warm compress to remove the crusted area
- D. Explain that this is a normal skin change with aging
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A crusted lesion, especially in an older adult, could be indicative of skin cancer or another serious condition. Therefore, reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and appropriate management. Placing an occlusive dressing (Choice B) could prevent proper assessment and treatment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) may not be suitable for a suspicious skin lesion as it could worsen the condition. Explaining it as a normal skin change (Choice D) without proper evaluation can delay necessary interventions and potentially harm the patient.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.
4. A female Native American client who is receiving chemotherapy places a native artifact, an Indian medicine wheel, in her hospital room. The HCP removes the medicine wheel and tells the client, 'This type of thing does not belong in the hospital.' Which intervention should the PN implement?
- A. Teach the client about the importance of adhering to the chemotherapy regimen
- B. Act as the client's advocate when addressing the issue with the HCP
- C. Consult with a Native American healer about the appropriate use of a medicine wheel
- D. Inform the HCP about the client's feelings of culture shock
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Acting as the client's advocate is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Removing a culturally significant artifact without considering the client's beliefs and emotional needs can be distressing. By advocating for the client, the PN can ensure that the client's cultural practices are respected, which is crucial for her emotional and spiritual well-being during treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while chemotherapy adherence is important, it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. The client's cultural needs and well-being take precedence. Choice C is incorrect because consulting with a Native American healer might not be necessary at this point and could delay addressing the immediate issue of advocating for the client's rights. Choice D is incorrect because simply reporting the client's feelings of culture shock to the HCP does not actively address the situation or advocate for the client's rights and cultural needs.
5. During the immediate postoperative period following a total hip replacement, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to use a walker or cane when ambulating
- B. Keep the client's hip aligned with knees abducted
- C. Teach the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing
- D. Monitor urinary flow via an indwelling catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client's hip aligned with the knees abducted is crucial to prevent dislocation of the prosthesis, which is a priority immediately after total hip replacement surgery. This position helps maintain the stability of the new hip joint. Encouraging the client to use a walker or cane (Choice A) is important but not as critical as ensuring proper hip alignment. Teaching the client to sit on the side of the bed before standing (Choice C) is a good practice but not as essential as maintaining hip alignment. Monitoring urinary flow via an indwelling catheter (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing complications immediately after a total hip replacement.
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