Nursing Elites

1. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?

• A. Potassium
• B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
• C. Serum amylase
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.

2. Insulin forces which of the following electrolytes out of the plasma and into the cells?

• A. Calcium
• B. Magnesium
• C. Phosphorus
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Insulin forces potassium out of the plasma and into the cells, which can cause hypokalemia. This is because insulin enhances the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in cell membranes, promoting the movement of potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cells. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as insulin does not directly influence the movement of calcium, magnesium, or phosphorus in the same manner as it does with potassium.

3. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician, and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Peas
• B. Cauliflower
• C. Low-fat yogurt
• D. Processed oat cereals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is processed oat cereals. Processed oat cereals are often high in sodium content, which should be avoided in cases of hypernatremia. Peas, cauliflower, and low-fat yogurt are generally low in sodium and are not typically contraindicated in hypernatremia. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

4. The doctor has ordered 1,000 cc of intravenous fluid every 8 hours. You will be using intravenous tubing that delivers 20 cc/drop. At what rate will you adjust the intravenous fluid flow? _____ gtts per minute.

• A. 38 gtts/min
• B. 42 gtts/min
• C. 50 gtts/min
• D. 40 gtts/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the rate: 1000 cc/8 hours = 125 cc/hour. 125 cc/hour * 1 drop/20 cc * 1 hour/60 minutes = 40 gtts/min. Therefore, the correct answer is 40 gtts/min. Choice A (38 gtts/min) is incorrect as it doesn't match the calculation result. Choice B (42 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate. Choice C (50 gtts/min) is incorrect as it is not the calculated rate either.

5. Which of the following changes was enacted by the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act?

• A. Creation of national health insurance exchanges for affordable insurance coverage
• B. Expansion of school-based health centers
• C. Free preventative services for all
• D. Medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act expanded school-based health centers to provide additional healthcare services to students. Choice A is incorrect because the creation of national health insurance exchanges was a key provision of the Affordable Care Act, but it was not the only change enacted by the legislation. Choice C is incorrect as while the Affordable Care Act did include provisions for free preventative services for certain groups, it was not applicable to all individuals. Choice D is incorrect as the Act did not specifically address medically managed clinics eligible for federal funding.

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