HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height. The client is 26 weeks pregnant. What should the fundal height be?
- A. Approximately 26 cm
- B. Between 24 to 28 cm
- C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
- D. Below the xiphoid process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Between 24 to 28 cm. Fundal height corresponds to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks of pregnancy, the fundal height should range between 24 to 28 cm. This measurement is a quick way to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height may vary and not always match the exact weeks of pregnancy. Choice C, measuring above the umbilicus by two finger widths, is not a standard method for fundal height measurement. Choice D, below the xiphoid process, is too high and not relevant for assessing fundal height during pregnancy.
2. A client with a history of stroke presents with dysphagia. What is the most important nursing intervention to prevent aspiration?
- A. Encourage the client to drink water between meals
- B. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals
- C. Provide the client with thickened liquids
- D. Allow the client to eat quickly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Position the client in a high-Fowler's position during meals. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position (sitting upright at a 90-degree angle) helps reduce the risk of aspiration by ensuring that the airway is protected during swallowing. This position facilitates easier swallowing and decreases the likelihood of food or liquids entering the respiratory tract. Encouraging the client to drink water between meals (choice A) does not directly address the risk of aspiration during meals. Providing thickened liquids (choice C) may be necessary for some patients with dysphagia but is not the most important intervention to prevent aspiration. Allowing the client to eat quickly (choice D) without proper positioning and precautions can increase the risk of aspiration.
3. The mother of an 8-year-old boy tells the nurse that he fell out of a tree and hurt his arm and shoulder. Which assessment finding is the most significant indicator of possible child abuse?
- A. The child looks at the floor when answering the nurse's questions
- B. The mother's version of the injury is different from the child's version
- C. The child has several abrasions on the chest and legs
- D. The mother refuses to answer questions about family history
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In cases of possible child abuse, discrepancies between the accounts given by the child and the parent are critical indicators. This inconsistency could suggest that the injury was not accidental and may be a result of abuse. Looking at the floor while answering questions or having abrasions on the body can be concerning but are not as direct indicators of abuse as conflicting stories between the child and the parent.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor sodium intake.
- C. Report any signs of weight gain.
- D. Avoid excessive caffeine intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor sodium intake.' Sodium levels can affect lithium levels in the body, so it is crucial to maintain a consistent sodium intake to prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic levels. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C, reporting signs of weight gain, is relevant but not as critical as monitoring sodium intake. Option D, avoiding excessive caffeine intake, is important for some individuals but not as essential as monitoring sodium levels when taking lithium.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
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