Nursing Elites

1. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height. The client is 26 weeks pregnant. What should the fundal height be?

• A. Approximately 26 cm
• B. Between 24 to 28 cm
• C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
• D. Below the xiphoid process

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Between 24 to 28 cm. Fundal height corresponds to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks of pregnancy, the fundal height should range between 24 to 28 cm. This measurement is a quick way to assess fetal growth and amniotic fluid volume. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height may vary and not always match the exact weeks of pregnancy. Choice C, measuring above the umbilicus by two finger widths, is not a standard method for fundal height measurement. Choice D, below the xiphoid process, is too high and not relevant for assessing fundal height during pregnancy.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

• A. Before bedtime, at 2000
• B. After breakfast
• C. Before the evening meal
• D. After lunch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

3. A client is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron). What symptoms should the nurse recognize as Cushingoid side effects?

• A. Moon face, slow wound healing, muscle wasting, sodium and water retention
• B. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor
• C. Bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies and periorbital edema
• D. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cushingoid side effects are characteristic of excess corticosteroid use, such as dexamethasone. These include moon face (rounding of the face), slow wound healing, muscle wasting, and sodium and water retention. Options B, C, and D describe symptoms that are not typically associated with Cushingoid side effects. Tachycardia, hypertension, weight loss, heat intolerance, nervousness, restlessness, tremor (Option B) are not typical of Cushingoid effects, while bradycardia, weight gain, cold intolerance, myxedema facies, and periorbital edema (Option C) are more indicative of hypothyroidism. Hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, dehydration, and hypotension (Option D) are not classical features of Cushingoid side effects.

4. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet
• B. Avoid foods high in sodium
• C. Monitor fluid intake and adjust as needed
• D. Take the medication in the morning

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss as a side effect. By increasing potassium-rich foods, the client can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential complication of furosemide therapy. Choice B is incorrect because while limiting sodium intake is generally advisable for heart failure, it is not directly related to furosemide use. Choice C is incorrect because fluid intake should be monitored and adjusted based on the individual's condition, but setting a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a standard recommendation. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken in the morning to prevent disturbances in sleep due to increased urination during the night.

5. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Engage the client in a quiet activity
• B. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimulation
• C. Monitor the client continuously
• D. Adjust the lighting and noise levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.

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