Nursing Elites

1. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:

• A. contains 46 chromosomes.
• B. contains two X chromosomes.
• C. is significantly larger than an egg cell.
• D. contains both an X and a Y chromosome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.

2. A 30-year-old primigravida delivers a nine-pound (4082 gram) infant vaginally after a 30-hour labor. What is the priority nursing action for this client?

• A. Assess the blood pressure for hypertension.
• B. Gently massage fundus every four hours.
• C. Observe for signs of uterine hemorrhage.
• D. Encourage direct contact with the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a prolonged labor and delivery of a large infant, the client is at an increased risk for uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage, making observation for signs of bleeding a priority. Assessing the blood pressure for hypertension (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as the immediate concern is postpartum hemorrhage. Gently massaging the fundus every four hours (Choice B) is a routine postpartum care activity but is not the priority in this scenario. Encouraging direct contact with the infant (Choice D) is important for bonding but does not address the immediate risk of uterine hemorrhage after delivery.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn upon admission to the nursery. Which of the following should the provider expect?

• A. Bulging Fontanels
• B. Nasal Flaring
• C. Length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in)
• D. Chest circumference 2 cm (0.8 in) smaller than the head circumference

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Upon admission to the nursery, a healthcare provider should expect the newborn's chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference. This is a normal finding in newborns due to their physiological development. Bulging fontanels (Choice A) can indicate increased intracranial pressure, which is abnormal. Nasal flaring (Choice B) is a sign of respiratory distress and is also an abnormal finding. While a length from head to heel of 40 cm (15.7 in) (Choice C) falls within the normal range for newborns, it is not a specific expectation upon admission to the nursery. Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn upon admission is for the chest circumference to be slightly smaller than the head circumference.

4. A 16-year-old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She's not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?

• A. Allow liberal family visitation
• B. Keep an airway at the bedside
• C. Assess temperature every hour
• D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping an airway at the bedside is crucial for a client with eclampsia, as there is a high risk of seizures that can obstruct the airway. Allowing liberal family visitation (choice A) may not be a priority at this time and can be overwhelming for the client. Assessing temperature every hour (choice C) is not directly related to managing eclampsia. Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours (choice D) is important but not as immediate as ensuring airway patency.

5. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?

• A. A client who has active genital herpes
• B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
• C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
• D. A client who has placenta previa

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.

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