Nursing Elites

1. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

2. A female client with depression attends group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

• A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
• B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
• C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
• D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response is to explore ways for the client to cope with anxiety (D). The nurse should encourage problem-solving rather than dependence on the case manager (A) for transportation. While taking medication for anxiety before riding the bus may be helpful, addressing coping strategies should come first (B). Although discussing the feelings of anxiety can be therapeutic (C), the most appropriate approach is to engage the client in finding ways to manage her anxiety effectively.

3. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The RN also determines that the client is homeless and is exhibiting suspiciousness. The client's plan of care should include what priority problem?

• A. Acute confusion.
• B. Ineffective community coping.
• C. Disturbed sensory perception.
• D. Self-care deficit.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acute confusion is the priority problem as it directly affects the client's ability to process information and make safe decisions. In this scenario, the client's disorientation, disorganization, and confusion indicate an immediate cognitive issue that requires attention to ensure her safety and stability. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority problems in this case. Ineffective community coping, disturbed sensory perception, and self-care deficit, while important, are secondary to the client's acute confusion, which poses an immediate risk to her well-being.

4. A nurse working in a psychiatric unit is assessing a client who appears to be responding to internal stimuli. The client is laughing and talking to himself. What is the nurse's best initial response?

• A. Approach the client and ask if he is hearing voices.
• B. Ignore the behavior as it is common in psychiatric settings.
• C. Encourage the client to express his thoughts verbally.
• D. Observe the client's behavior from a distance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Approaching the client and asking if he is hearing voices is the best initial response by the nurse. This action can help assess the situation and determine if the client is experiencing hallucinations that may require immediate intervention. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring the behavior could lead to missing important signs of distress or potential risks. Choice C may not address the immediate concern of assessing for hallucinations. Choice D is also not ideal as observing from a distance may not provide the necessary information for immediate assessment and intervention.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

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