Nursing Elites

1. An elderly resident of a long-term care facility is no longer able to perform self-care and is becoming progressively weaker. The resident previously requested that no resuscitative efforts be performed, and the family requests hospice care. What action should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Reaffirm the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts.
• B. Transfer the client to a hospice inpatient facility.
• C. Prepare the family for the client's impending death.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the family's request.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the LPN/LVN should implement is to notify the healthcare provider of the family's request. This is crucial to ensure that appropriate steps are taken to address the family's request for hospice care and to coordinate the necessary care for the resident. While reaffirming the client's desire for no resuscitative efforts is important, notifying the healthcare provider takes precedence in this situation. Transferring the client to a hospice inpatient facility and preparing the family for the client's impending death are significant actions but should be done after notifying the healthcare provider to ensure proper coordination of care.

2. The patient has been in bed for several days and needs to be ambulated. Which action will the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain a narrow base of support.
• B. Dangle the patient at the bedside.
• C. Encourage isometric exercises.
• D. Suggest a high-calcium diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a patient needs to be mobilized after being in bed for several days is to dangle the patient at the bedside. Dangling at the bedside is the initial step to assess the patient's tolerance to sitting up and moving. It helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and allows the nurse to evaluate the patient's response to upright positioning before attempting further ambulation. Maintaining a narrow base of support (Choice A) is related to assisting with ambulation but is not the first step. Encouraging isometric exercises (Choice C) and suggesting a high-calcium diet (Choice D) are not immediate actions needed to initiate mobilization in this scenario.

3. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
• D. Decreased serum potassium levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.

4. A client who is postoperative and has paralytic ileus is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?

• A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• C. Normal bowel sounds
• D. High-pitched bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with paralytic ileus, absent bowel sounds with distention are expected due to decreased or absent bowel motility. This is a key characteristic of paralytic ileus, where the bowel is unable to contract and move contents along the digestive tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice B) are more indicative of increased peristalsis, which is not typically seen in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds (choice C) may not be present in a client with paralytic ileus. High-pitched bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in this scenario is absent bowel sounds with distention.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?

• A. Ventrogluteal
• B. Dorsogluteal
• C. Deltoid
• D. Vastus lateralis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.

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