in which condition is the butterfly rash most commonly seen
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. In which condition is the 'butterfly rash' most commonly seen?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The 'butterfly rash' across the cheeks and nose is a classic sign of SLE, an autoimmune disease. This rash is a key dermatological manifestation of SLE, often triggered or worsened by exposure to sunlight. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the 'butterfly rash' is not commonly associated with rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, or dermatomyositis.

2. What is the primary purpose of administering Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) to an Rh-negative mother after childbirth?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent Rh sensitization in future pregnancies. RhoGAM is given to an Rh-negative mother to prevent the development of antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells. This prevents Rh sensitization, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future Rh-positive pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because RhoGAM is not used to treat anemia in the newborn, increase the mother's white blood cell count, or prevent infection in the newborn.

3. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention in an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help to quickly open the airways, relieve bronchospasm, and improve breathing. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids may be beneficial for other conditions but is not the priority in an acute asthma attack. Applying a high-flow oxygen mask may be necessary in severe cases of respiratory distress but is not the initial priority when managing an acute asthma attack. Performing chest physiotherapy is not indicated as the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack and may not address the immediate need to open the airways and improve breathing.

4. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

5. What is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insulin deficiency. Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs due to a severe lack of insulin, causing the body to break down fat for energy, leading to the production of ketones and acidification of the blood. Option B, Overhydration, is incorrect as DKA is characterized by dehydration rather than overhydration. Option C, Excess carbohydrate intake, is incorrect because while high blood sugar levels can contribute to DKA, the primary cause is insulin deficiency. Option D, Excess insulin, is also incorrect as DKA is not caused by an excess of insulin but rather by a lack of it.

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