a young client who is being taught to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smo
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI

1. A young client who is being taught how to use an inhaler for symptoms of asthma tells the nurse about the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes. In evaluating the client’s response, what is the best initial action by the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse is to revise the plan of care. This is necessary to address the client's intention to continue smoking and ensure that appropriate support and education are provided. Choice A is not the best initial action as the client is already aware of the risks of smoking with asthma. Choice C might not be effective as the client's intention to continue smoking poses a significant risk to their health. Choice D, providing resources for smoking cessation, is important but revising the plan of care should come first to address the immediate concern.

2. A client who has a history of hyperthyroidism was initially admitted with lethargy and confusion. Which additional finding warrants the most immediate action by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A further decline in LOC can indicate severe complications and requires immediate attention. This change may signify worsening neurological status, which could lead to life-threatening consequences if not addressed promptly. Choices A, B, and C may also be concerning in a client with a history of hyperthyroidism, but a further decline in LOC takes priority due to its potential for rapid deterioration and the need for urgent intervention.

3. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

4. While planning care for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse identifies a collaborative problem of pain. What is the etiology of this problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compression of a nerve. In carpal tunnel syndrome, pain arises from the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel. This compression leads to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and arm. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because carpal tunnel syndrome pain is primarily caused by the physical compression of the nerve, rather than irritation of nerve endings, diminished blood flow, or ischemic tissue changes.

5. A young adult client, admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs. The client’s pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all PRBCs have been transfused?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: One unit of PRBCs typically raises the hematocrit by 3%. Since the client received 4 units, the hematocrit is expected to increase by approximately 12% (4 units x 3% per unit). Therefore, the nurse should expect the client's hematocrit to be 29% after all PRBCs have been transfused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not account for the cumulative effect of multiple PRBC units on the hematocrit level.

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