a nurse is caring for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis jia what is the priority nursing intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pediatric Practice Exam HESI

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is to administer nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs help manage pain and inflammation associated with JIA, making them crucial in providing relief to the child. Encouraging a diet high in protein (Choice A) may be beneficial for overall health but is not the priority in managing JIA symptoms. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice C) can provide comfort but does not address the underlying inflammation. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for maintaining joint mobility but is not the priority intervention when managing acute symptoms of JIA.

2. A 1-month-old girl with low-set ears and severe hypotonia has been diagnosed with trisomy 18. Which nursing diagnosis would the nurse identify as most likely?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely nursing diagnosis for a 1-month-old girl with trisomy 18, characterized by low-set ears and severe hypotonia, is 'Grieving related to the child's poor prognosis.' Trisomy 18 is associated with a poor prognosis, and families often experience grief as they come to terms with the challenges and uncertainties associated with the condition. 'Interrupted family process' may not be as relevant since the primary focus is on the child's condition. 'Deficient knowledge related to the genetic disorder' could be important but may not be the most likely initial concern, as emotional support for the family is crucial at this point. 'Ineffective coping related to the stress of providing care' is a broad diagnosis that does not specifically address the emotional response to the child's prognosis, which is the primary concern in this case.

3. The nurse is caring for a boy with probable intussusception. He had diarrhea before admission, but while waiting for the administration of air pressure to reduce the intussusception, he passes a normal brown stool. Which nursing action is the most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The passage of a normal brown stool in a child with intussusception could indicate spontaneous reduction of the intussusception. This change in the patient's condition is significant, requiring prompt notification of the practitioner for further evaluation and management. While measuring abdominal girth (Choice B) is important for assessing abdominal distention, it is not the priority when a potential spontaneous reduction may have occurred. Auscultating for bowel sounds (Choice C) and taking vital signs, including blood pressure (Choice D), are routine nursing assessments but do not address the immediate need to inform the practitioner of a possible change in the patient's condition that necessitates urgent attention.

4. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage can lead to shock due to excessive bleeding. Oxygen should be provided to support oxygenation. Treatment for shock, which includes maintaining vital signs and perfusion, is crucial. Uterine massage helps prevent further bleeding by promoting uterine contraction. This combination of interventions is essential for managing postpartum hemorrhage effectively. Choices A, B, and D lack the comprehensive approach needed for managing postpartum hemorrhage, as they do not address the treatment of shock, which is vital in this scenario.

5. A parent calls the outpatient clinic requesting information about the appropriate dose of acetaminophen for a 16-month-old child who has signs of an upper respiratory tract infection and fever. The directions on the bottle of acetaminophen elixir are 120 mg every 4 hours when needed. At the toddler’s 15-month visit, the healthcare provider prescribed 150 mg. What is the nurse’s best response to the parent?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most accurate way to determine a therapeutic dose for children is based on their weight rather than age. Weight-based dosing accounts for individual variations in drug metabolism and distribution, ensuring a more precise and safer medication administration. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the importance of weight-based dosing in children, potentially leading to inappropriate dosing and safety concerns.

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