Nursing Elites

1. What is the priority nursing intervention for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)?

• A. Encouraging a diet high in protein
• B. Administering nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
• C. Applying heat to affected joints
• D. Providing range-of-motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is to administer nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). NSAIDs help manage pain and inflammation associated with JIA, making them crucial in providing relief to the child. Encouraging a diet high in protein (Choice A) may be beneficial for overall health but is not the priority in managing JIA symptoms. Applying heat to affected joints (Choice C) can provide comfort but does not address the underlying inflammation. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) is important for maintaining joint mobility but is not the priority intervention when managing acute symptoms of JIA.

2. After eating, a child with a diagnosis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) should be placed in what position as recommended by the nurse?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position after eating is beneficial for reducing symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux. This position helps prevent gastric contents from flowing back into the esophagus. The supine position (choice A) may worsen reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to assist in reflux, leading to discomfort and regurgitation. Prone position (choice B) is not recommended after eating as it may cause discomfort and increase the risk of aspiration due to pressure on the stomach. Trendelenburg position (choice D), with the head lower than the rest of the body, is not indicated for managing GERD after eating and may not provide the desired benefits in this context.

3. An 8-year-old child with the diagnosis of meningitis is to have a lumbar puncture. What should the nurse explain is the purpose of this procedure?

• A. To measure the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid
• B. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis
• C. To relieve intracranial pressure
• D. To assess the presence of infection in the spinal fluid

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid for analysis. This sample helps in diagnosing conditions such as meningitis by evaluating the presence of pathogens or abnormalities in the cerebrospinal fluid. Measuring the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid (Choice A) is not the main objective of a lumbar puncture, although it can be done during the procedure. Relieving intracranial pressure (Choice C) is not the direct purpose of a lumbar puncture, as other interventions are typically used for this purpose. Assessing the presence of infection in the spinal fluid (Choice D) is related to the overall goal of obtaining a sample for analysis, making it a secondary outcome of the procedure.

4. The nurse is admitting a newborn with hypospadias to the nursery. The nurse expects which finding in this newborn?

• A. absence of a urethral opening
• B. penis appears shorter than usual for age
• C. the urethral opening is along the dorsal surface of the penis
• D. the urethral opening is along the ventral surface of the penis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is located along the ventral surface of the penis, not the dorsal surface (Choice C) or absent (Choice A). This leads to the characteristic appearance of a ventrally displaced urethral meatus. The penis may appear normal in size but with the urethral opening positioned abnormally (Choice D), rather than being shorter than usual (Choice B). Therefore, the correct expectation for a newborn with hypospadias is that the urethral opening is along the ventral surface of the penis, making Choice D the correct answer.

5. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?

• A. tachypnea
• B. bradycardia
• C. inability to sweat
• D. increased urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.

Similar Questions