HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. A young adult male is admitted to the intensive care unit with multiple rib fractures and severe pulmonary contusions after falling 20 feet from a rooftop. The Chest X-ray suggests acute Respiratory distress Syndrome. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the Nurse?
- A. Apical pulse 58 bpm.
- B. Core body temperature 100.8°F.
- C. Tachypnea with dyspnea.
- D. Multiple bruises over the chest area.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a patient with multiple rib fractures, severe pulmonary contusions, and possible acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), tachypnea (rapid breathing) with dyspnea (shortness of breath) is a critical sign of respiratory distress that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. Tachypnea and dyspnea indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation, which can lead to respiratory failure if not addressed promptly. The other options, such as apical pulse rate, core body temperature, and bruises over the chest area, are important assessments but do not directly indicate the immediate need for intervention in a patient with respiratory distress.
2. Four clients at full term present to the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should a nurse assess first?
- A. Multipara with contractions occurring every three minutes
- B. Multipara scheduled for non-stress test and biophysical profile
- C. Primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes
- D. Primipara with burning on urination and urinary frequency
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A primipara with vaginal show and leaking membranes requires immediate assessment as she may be in active labor or at risk of infection. The vaginal show and leaking membranes suggest potential rupture of membranes and the start of labor. Assessing her first ensures prompt management and monitoring. The other options, while important, do not indicate immediate or emergent needs. Contractions every three minutes in a multipara can be managed with ongoing monitoring; non-stress tests and biophysical profiles can be scheduled and are not acute needs. Burning on urination and urinary frequency in a primipara may indicate a urinary tract infection, which is important but not as urgent as assessing for active labor or rupture of membranes.
3. An assistive personnel (AP) is assisting a nurse with the care of a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions by the AP indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. The AP hangs the collection bag below the level of the bladder.
- B. The AP performs hand hygiene before handling the catheter.
- C. The AP secures the catheter to the client’s leg with tape.
- D. The AP empties the collection bag when it is full.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hanging the collection bag below the level of the bladder is the correct technique for maintaining proper drainage and preventing backflow in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it indicates a need for further teaching. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate appropriate actions in catheter care. Performing hand hygiene before handling the catheter helps prevent infection, securing the catheter to the client’s leg with tape prevents accidental dislodgement, and emptying the collection bag when it is full ensures that the catheter functions effectively.
4. When caring for a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, what nursing care should be included?
- A. Elevating the head but giving nothing by mouth
- B. Elevating the head for feedings
- C. Feeding glucose water only
- D. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula, elevating the head but giving nothing by mouth is crucial to prevent aspiration. Placing the neonate in a semi-upright position helps reduce the risk of reflux and aspiration of gastric contents into the lungs. Elevating the head for feedings (Choice B) would still pose a risk of aspiration as the neonate may aspirate during feeding. Feeding glucose water only (Choice C) is not appropriate and does not address the risk of aspiration associated with a tracheoesophageal fistula. Avoiding suctioning unless the infant is cyanotic (Choice D) is incorrect because suctioning may be necessary for maintaining airway patency, regardless of cyanosis, in a neonate with a suspected tracheoesophageal fistula.
5. When should a glucagon emergency kit be used for a client with Type 1 diabetes?
- A. During episodes of hypoglycemia
- B. At the onset of signs of diabetic ketoacidosis
- C. Before meals to prevent hyperglycemia
- D. When signs of severe hypoglycemia occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucagon emergency kit is used when signs of severe hypoglycemia occur in a client with Type 1 diabetes. Glucagon helps raise blood glucose levels in cases of severe hypoglycemia when the individual is unable to take oral glucose. It is crucial to administer glucagon promptly to prevent serious complications associated with low blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a glucagon emergency kit is specifically indicated for severe hypoglycemia, not for general episodes of hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, or prevention of hyperglycemia.