HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When using an open irrigation technique to irrigate a client's indwelling urinary catheter, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in a side-lying position
- B. Instill 15 mL of irrigation fluid into the catheter with each flush
- C. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output
- D. Perform the irrigation using a 20 mL syringe
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique on a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This calculation helps ensure an accurate measurement of the client's actual urine output by accounting for the irrigation fluid introduced into the catheter. Placing the client in a side-lying position (Choice A) is not directly related to the irrigation procedure. Instilling a specific volume of irrigation fluid (Choice B) may vary depending on the client's condition and the healthcare provider's order. Using a 20 mL syringe for irrigation (Choice D) is a matter of equipment choice and does not directly impact the calculation of urine output in this context.
2. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Record the lack of advance directive on the chart
- B. Give information about advance directives
- C. Assume that the client wishes a full code
- D. Refer this issue to the unit secretary
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.
3. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?
- A. Ankle-foot orthotic
- B. Continuous passive motion machine
- C. Abduction splint
- D. Sequential compression device
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 1/2 tablet.
- B. 1 tablet.
- C. 1 1/2 tablets.
- D. 2 tablets.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.
5. A client in an oncology clinic is being assessed by a nurse while undergoing treatment for ovarian cancer. Which of the following statements by the client indicates she is experiencing psychological distress?
- A. I keep having nightmares about my upcoming surgery.
- B. I feel more energetic than I did before.
- C. I have been making plans for the future.
- D. I am looking forward to starting my new treatment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer as nightmares about upcoming surgery indicate psychological distress commonly associated with fears, anxiety, and stress related to the treatment. Choices B, C, and D suggest positive emotions and proactive behaviors that are not typical signs of psychological distress in this context. Feeling more energetic, making future plans, and looking forward to treatment are generally positive indicators of coping and adjustment to the situation.
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