Nursing Elites

1. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
• B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
• C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
• D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.

2. A 15-year-old client has been placed in a Milwaukee Brace. Which statement from the adolescent indicates the need for additional teaching?

• A. I will only have to wear this for 6 months.
• B. I should inspect my skin daily.
• C. The brace will be worn day and night.
• D. I can take it off when I shower.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The statement 'I will only have to wear this for 6 months' indicates a need for additional teaching because the Milwaukee Brace is typically worn for 12-18 months, not just 6 months. Choice B is correct as inspecting the skin daily is important to prevent skin breakdown. Choice C is correct as the brace is usually worn day and night for effectiveness. Choice D is correct as the brace can be removed when showering to maintain hygiene.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Updating the plan of care for a client who is postoperative
• B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk using a quad cane
• C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
• D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - 'Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence.' This task falls within the scope of duties for an assistive personnel (AP). Updating care plans (Choice A), reinforcing teaching (Choice B), and applying sterile dressings (Choice D) typically require a higher level of training and expertise, making them tasks that should not be assigned to an AP. Assigning appropriate tasks based on skill levels ensures safe and effective patient care.

4. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

5. A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the LPN/LVN obtain first?

• A. Sexual activity patterns.
• B. Nutritional history.
• C. Leisure activities.
• D. Financial stressors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should first obtain the nutritional history in this scenario. Nutrition plays a crucial role in mental health, and deficiencies or imbalances in diet can contribute to anxiety symptoms. Understanding the mother's nutritional intake can help identify any factors exacerbating her anxiety. Sexual activity patterns are not directly relevant to her anxiety symptoms unless specifically indicated. Leisure activities and financial stressors may be important but are secondary to addressing the potential impact of nutrition on anxiety.

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