HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. When preparing to administer blood to a client, what is the most important action to ensure client safety during this procedure?
- A. Check the client’s blood type compatibility
- B. Monitor the client for signs of transfusion reaction
- C. Verify the correct client and blood product with another healthcare professional
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most important action to ensure client safety during a blood transfusion is to implement multiple safety checks. Checking the client’s blood type compatibility is crucial as it helps prevent major transfusion reactions. Monitoring the client for signs of transfusion reaction is essential to detect any adverse reactions early. Verifying the correct client and blood product with another healthcare professional adds an extra layer of safety by ensuring the right blood is administered to the right patient. Choosing 'All of the above' (Option D) is the correct answer because each action plays a vital role in ensuring the safety and well-being of the client during a blood transfusion. Options A, B, and C are not exclusive; they complement each other to provide comprehensive safety measures.
2. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
3. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
- B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
- C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
- D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.
4. A client requires application of an eye shield to the right eye. What should the nurse do in order to apply tape to anchor the shield most effectively?
- A. Place tape from the cheek to the forehead
- B. Secure tape from the nose to the ear
- C. Attach tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead
- D. Use circular bandaging around the head
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct way to apply tape to anchor an eye shield effectively is to attach the tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead. This method provides stability for the shield without putting pressure on the eye itself, thus helping to protect the eye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taping from the cheek to the forehead, securing tape from the nose to the ear, or using circular bandaging around the head may not provide the necessary stability and protection required for the eye shield.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone abdominal surgery. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Absence of bowel sounds
- B. Mild abdominal distention
- C. Drainage of serosanguineous fluid from the incision
- D. Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain may indicate complications such as peritonitis, bowel perforation, or internal bleeding. These conditions are serious and require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or deterioration. Absence of bowel sounds, mild abdominal distention, and drainage of serosanguineous fluid are common findings after abdominal surgery and may not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Severe abdominal pain post-surgery should always be reported promptly as it could signify a life-threatening situation that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
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