Nursing Elites

1. When planning the discharge of a child who had surgery for a congenital heart defect, what is an important aspect of the discharge teaching?

• A. Teaching the parents about signs of infection
• B. Providing instructions on wound care
• C. Scheduling follow-up appointments
• D. Explaining the use of prescribed medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining the use of prescribed medications is crucial because it helps ensure proper management of the child’s condition after discharge. While teaching the parents about signs of infection and providing instructions on wound care are important aspects of postoperative care, they are not as critical as ensuring the correct understanding and administration of prescribed medications. Scheduling follow-up appointments is also important but does not directly impact the immediate post-discharge care and medication adherence.

2. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old client. Which finding suggests to the nurse this child may have a genetic disorder?

• A. The inquiry determines the child had feeding problems.
• B. The child weighs 40 lb (18.2 kg) and is 40 in (101.6 cm) in height.
• C. The child has low-set ears with lobe creases.
• D. The child can hop on one foot but cannot skip.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Low-set ears with lobe creases are often associated with genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome, and can indicate underlying chromosomal abnormalities. This physical characteristic is a common feature seen in various genetic syndromes. The other choices, including feeding problems, weight and height measurements, and motor skills, are not typically specific indicators of genetic disorders in the absence of other associated features.

3. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?

• A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
• B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
• C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
• D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.

4. After the nurse has completed an oral examination of a healthy 2-year-old child, the parent asks when the child should first be taken to the dentist. When is the most appropriate time in the child’s life for the nurse to suggest?

• A. Before starting school
• B. Within the next few months
• C. When the first deciduous teeth are lost
• D. At the next dental check-up for a family member

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate time for a child to first visit the dentist is within the next few months after turning two years old. This visit allows the dentist to assess the child's oral health, provide guidance on proper oral hygiene practices, and establish a positive relationship with dental care. Choice A (Before starting school) is not as specific and timely as the recommended age of 2 years. Choice C (When the first deciduous teeth are lost) is not ideal as preventive dental visits should start earlier to establish good oral health habits. Choice D (At the next dental check-up for a family member) may delay the child's first dental visit, missing the opportunity for early preventive care and guidance.

5. A healthcare provider is educating a parent group about the importance of immunizations. Which disease can be prevented by the varicella vaccine?

• A. Measles
• B. Mumps
• C. Rubella
• D. Chickenpox

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The varicella vaccine is specifically designed to prevent chickenpox. Measles, mumps, and rubella are prevented by different vaccines: Measles is prevented by the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine; Mumps is prevented by the MMR vaccine; and Rubella is also prevented by the MMR vaccine. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Chickenpox, as it is the disease prevented by the varicella vaccine.

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