Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client who, while sitting in a chair, starts to experience a seizure, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Lower the client to the floor and place a pad under the client's head.
• B. Hold the client's head still to prevent injury.
• C. Restrain the client to prevent movement.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to lower the client to the floor to prevent injury and ensure their safety. Placing a pad under the client's head helps protect the head from injury. Choice B, holding the client's head still, is incorrect as it can lead to harm; it's essential to allow movement during a seizure to prevent neck injury. Choice C, restraining the client, is dangerous and can cause harm by restricting movement. Choice D, placing the client in a supine position, is also not recommended during a seizure as it does not provide adequate protection for the client.

2. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Airborne precautions
• B. Droplet precautions
• C. Contact precautions
• D. Standard precautions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.

4. A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning to perform hygiene care for a new resident. Which of the following assessment questions is the nurse's priority before beginning this procedure?

• A. When do you usually bathe, in the morning or evening?
• B. Do you prefer a bath or a shower?
• C. At what temperature do you prefer your bath water?
• D. Are you able to help with your hygiene care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority assessment question before beginning hygiene care for a new resident is determining if the resident is able to help with their hygiene care. This is essential to ensure the resident's safety during the procedure and prevent any potential injuries. Options A, B, and C, while relevant to providing personalized care, are not as critical as assessing the resident's ability to participate in their own hygiene care. Asking about the resident's ability to assist also promotes their independence and autonomy in self-care activities.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

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