a nurse is caring for a client who is at 20 weeks of gestation and has trichomoniasis which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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1. A client at 20 weeks of gestation has trichomoniasis. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Malodorous discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite. It is typically described as frothy, greenish-yellow, and malodorous. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect findings associated with other conditions. Thick, white vaginal discharge is more characteristic of a yeast infection; urinary frequency may be seen in urinary tract infections; and vulvar lesions are commonly seen in herpes simplex virus infections.

2. A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to stay in a side-lying position after receiving misoprostol intravaginally is essential. This position helps keep the medication in place, allowing for better absorption. Choice B is incorrect because oxytocin administration is not typically indicated after misoprostol use. Choice C is incorrect as magnesium supplementation is not part of the standard protocol for misoprostol administration. Choice D is incorrect as having a full bladder is not necessary before initiating misoprostol therapy.

3. The client who is 40 weeks gestation seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a nonstress test. The client asks why she needs the test. The nurse’s best response would be:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C because the nonstress test is specifically used to assess the baby's well-being close to the due date. It helps determine if the baby is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients in the womb. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not assess the mother's stress level but focuses on fetal well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the test does not predict the baby's ability to withstand labor. Choice D is incorrect because the test does not solely indicate if the baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome; rather, it assesses the current well-being of the baby.

4. Which of the following is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder whose onset is in middle age?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Huntington's disease is a fatal genetic neurologic disorder characterized by progressive nerve cell degeneration in the brain. It typically manifests in middle age with symptoms such as involuntary movements, cognitive decline, and psychiatric disturbances. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the nervous system in early childhood, not middle age. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Choice B) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects muscle function and usually presents in early childhood. Hemophilia (Choice C) is a genetic disorder related to blood clotting, and its onset is not typically in middle age.

5. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.

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