Nursing Elites

1. A child has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What position should the nurse recommend the child be placed in after eating?

• A. Supine
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After eating, it is beneficial to place a child with GERD in a semi-Fowler's position. This position helps prevent reflux by keeping the child's head elevated above the stomach, reducing the chances of gastric contents flowing back into the esophagus. Placing the child supine (lying flat on their back) can worsen reflux symptoms by allowing gravity to work against the natural flow of gastric contents. Prone position (lying on the stomach) is not recommended due to the increased risk of aspiration. Trendelenburg position (feet elevated above head) is also inappropriate as it can lead to increased pressure on the abdomen, potentially worsening reflux symptoms.

2. Congenital heart defects have traditionally been divided into acyanotic or cyanotic defects. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of congenital heart defects, this system in clinical practice is

• A. helpful because it explains the hemodynamics involved
• B. helpful because children with cyanotic defects are easily identified
• C. problematic because cyanosis is rarely present in children
• D. problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The classification system of congenital heart defects into acyanotic or cyanotic defects is problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis, complicating the differentiation. Cyanosis can occur in some acyanotic defects due to various reasons such as right-to-left shunting or decreased pulmonary blood flow, making the classification based solely on cyanosis misleading. Choice A is incorrect because while the classification may involve hemodynamics, the main issue lies in the potential for acyanotic defects to develop cyanosis. Choice B is incorrect as the ease of identifying children with cyanotic defects does not address the main problem with the classification system. Choice C is also incorrect as the presence of cyanosis is not the only factor determining the classification's validity.

3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread clotting and subsequent consumption of clotting factors, leading to the formation of fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster clotting, which is opposite to the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) may be observed in the early stages of DIC due to the compensatory increase in production, but it is not a definitive indicator. Increased platelets (Choice D) may be seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot formation, but it is not a specific finding for DIC.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the professional integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?

• A. Growth plate.
• B. Epiphysis.
• C. Physis.
• D. Metaphysis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. The growth plate, also known as the physis, is the cartilaginous region in the metaphysis where bone growth occurs. The metaphysis is the area between the epiphysis and diaphysis where bone lengthening occurs, but it is not the primary site of bone growth. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

5. Following delivery of a newborn, the 21-year-old mother is experiencing mild vaginal bleeding. You note that her heart rate has increased from 90 to 120 beats/min and she is diaphoretic. Management should include

• A. Oxygen, uterine massage, and transport
• B. Oxygen, placement on the left side, and transport
• C. Oxygen, treatment for shock, and uterine massage during transport
• D. Oxygen, internal vaginal pads, and treatment for shock during transport

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the 21-year-old mother is showing signs of hemorrhagic shock with increased heart rate, diaphoresis, and vaginal bleeding. The appropriate management includes providing oxygen to support tissue perfusion, treating for shock to restore adequate circulation, and performing uterine massage to help control bleeding during transport. Options A, B, and D do not address the comprehensive management needed for postpartum hemorrhage in this situation.

Similar Questions