HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?
- A. Administer the enema solution.
- B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
- C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
- D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.
2. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. The client reports flank pain, and the nurse notes reddish-brown urine in the client's urinary catheter bag. The nurse recognizes these manifestations as which of the following types of transfusion reactions?
- A. Hemolytic
- B. Allergic
- C. Febrile
- D. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemolytic. Hemolytic reactions can lead to flank pain and hemoglobinuria, as the body breaks down the transfused red blood cells. In hemolytic reactions, the immune system attacks and destroys the transfused red blood cells, causing the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream and urine. This results in reddish-brown urine, indicating hemoglobinuria. Allergic reactions typically present with symptoms like itching, hives, or rash. Febrile reactions are characterized by fever, chills, and rigors. TRALI is a rare but serious transfusion reaction that manifests as acute respiratory distress following a transfusion, not flank pain and hemoglobinuria.
3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- B. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids.
- D. Assist the client with oral care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best intervention for a client experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is to provide antiemetic medication as prescribed. This medication helps in managing and reducing nausea and vomiting, providing relief to the client. Offering small, frequent meals (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Encouraging clear liquid intake (Choice C) may not be effective in controlling nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Assisting with oral care (Choice D) is important for overall comfort but may not directly address the symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
5. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?
- A. Assess oral cavity.
- B. Assess room for drafts.
- C. Assess ankles for edema.
- D. Assess for reduced sensations.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.
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