Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

2. A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?

• A. Move all machines away from the client's immediate area.
• B. Attempt to allay the client's fears by explaining the etiology of his condition.
• C. Cluster care so that brief periods of rest can be scheduled during the day.
• D. Extend visitation times for family and friends.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.

3. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide to the wife of the client diagnosed with schizophrenia is to offer factual information. Choice B is the correct answer as it explains that schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking. This response provides a simple and accurate explanation of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the wife's question about what schizophrenia is. Choice A focuses on emotional support rather than providing information about the disorder. Choice C gives false reassurance without addressing the nature of schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the question by suggesting the wife speak to the psychologist, missing an opportunity to educate and support the family member.

4. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Offer oral fluids.
• B. Monitor vital signs.
• C. Evaluate ECT effectiveness.
• D. Encourage group participation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.

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