HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. A female client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?
- A. I don't hear any voices. They must be in your head.
- B. What are the voices telling you to do?
- C. You need to ignore the voices and focus on reality.
- D. I know the voices are real to you, but I don't hear them.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's experience while gently presenting reality can help build trust and provide reassurance without reinforcing the hallucination.
2. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
- B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
- C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.
3. A child is brought to the emergency room with a broken arm. Because of other injuries, the nurse suspects the child may be a victim of abuse. When the nurse tries to give the child an injection, the child's mother becomes very loud and shouts, 'I won't leave my son! Don't you touch him! You'll hurt my child!' What is the best interpretation of the mother's statements? The mother is
- A. regressing to an earlier behavior pattern.
- B. sublimating her anger.
- C. projecting her feelings onto the nurse.
- D. suppressing her fear.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.
4. The nurse suspects child abuse when assessing a 3-year-old boy and noticing several small, round burns on his legs and trunk that might be the result of cigarette burns. Which parental behavior provides the greatest validation for such suspicions?
- A. The parents' explanation of how the burns occurred is different from the child's explanation of how they occurred.
- B. The parents seem to dismiss the severity of the child's burns, saying they are very small and have not posed any problem.
- C. The parents become very anxious when the nurse suggests that the child may need to be admitted for further evaluation.
- D. The parents tell the nurse that the child was burned in a house fire which is incompatible with the nurse's observation of the type of burn.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: (D) provides the most validation for suspecting child abuse. The parent's explanation (subjective data) that the child was burned in a house fire is incompatible with the objective data observed by the nurse (small, round burns on the legs and trunk). (A) relies on subjective data, and the child's explanation might not accurately reflect the situation due to various factors like age or fear. The apparent lack of concern from the parents (B) is inconclusive as the nurse's interpretation of their reaction could be subjective. While parental anxiety (C) could hint at potential child abuse, it's important to note that most parents would naturally be anxious about their child's hospitalization, making it a less definitive indicator compared to the inconsistency in the explanation provided by the parents in option (D).
5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
- A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
- D. Drug-induced parkinsonism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.
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