HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A female client who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past year comes to the clinic for an annual exam. Which finding is most important for the PN to report to the HCP?
- A. Breast tenderness
- B. Change in menstrual flow
- C. Left calf pain
- D. Weight gain of 5 pounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Left calf pain could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious side effect of oral contraceptives. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is critical for further evaluation and treatment. Breast tenderness and change in menstrual flow are common side effects of oral contraceptives and may not be as urgent as left calf pain. Weight gain of 5 pounds, while noteworthy, is not as concerning as a possible indication of DVT.
2. When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?
- A. Using the Z-track method
- B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
- C. Not massaging the injection site
- D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.
3. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side
- B. Ask the UAP to leave the room and assess the client's body for bruising
- C. Carefully observe the interaction between the client and family members
- D. Instruct the UAP to protect the client's left side when transferring to a chair
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.
4. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
5. Based on the computer documentation in the EMR, which action should the PN implement?
- A. Give the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type results
- D. Administer hydrocodone/acetaminophen one tablet for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The rubella vaccine is crucial for preventing rubella infection, which can cause severe congenital disabilities if contracted during pregnancy. Administering the vaccine subcutaneously is the correct action based on EMR documentation. Observing breastfeeding, calling the nursery for blood type results, and administering pain medication are not indicated by the EMR documentation and are not relevant to the situation described in the question.
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