Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. During discharge planning for a male client with schizophrenia who insists on returning to his apartment despite being informed to move to a boarding home, what is the most important nursing diagnosis?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning in this scenario is 'Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.' The client's insistence on returning to his apartment despite being informed otherwise indicates a form of denial, possibly due to anxiety about the situational change. Focused discharge planning should address this denial and the underlying anxiety to ensure a smooth transition. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context as the primary issue lies in the client's denial and anxiety regarding the change in living arrangements, rather than coping, social interactions, or self-care deficits.

3. A client states that she hears God's voice telling her that she has sinned and needs to punish herself. Which response by the LPN/LVN is most important?

• A. How do you think you will be punished?
• B. Please tell staff when you think you need to punish yourself.
• C. What exactly do you think you have done to be punished?
• D. Let's talk about your strengths

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important response by the LPN/LVN is to encourage the client to communicate with staff when they feel the need to punish themselves. This approach can help assess the risk of self-harm and enable appropriate intervention. Choice A focuses more on the method of punishment rather than encouraging help-seeking behavior. Choice C seeks specific details about the perceived wrongdoing rather than addressing the immediate concern of self-punishment. Choice D, discussing strengths, does not directly address the client's current distress and potential self-harm risk.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.
• B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect of the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication only when you feel depressed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.

5. A client with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the flashbacks.
• B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
• C. Discuss relaxation techniques with the client.
• D. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the flashbacks is the most appropriate initial intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. This intervention helps the client express their feelings, thoughts, and experiences related to the trauma they are going through. It can assist in processing the traumatic events and starting the healing process. Choice B, assisting the client in developing coping strategies, is important but should come after the client has started to verbalize and process their experiences. Choice C, discussing relaxation techniques, may be beneficial later in the treatment process but may not be as effective initially as addressing the traumatic experiences. Choice D, referring the client to a PTSD support group, is also valuable but may not be as immediate as encouraging the client to talk about their flashbacks to begin the therapeutic process.

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