Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. A male client is brought to the emergency department by a police officer, who reports the client was disturbing the peace by running naked in the street, striking out at others, and smashing car windows. Which behaviors should the client demonstrate to determine if he should be evaluated for involuntary commitment?

• A. Threats to kill his friend.
• B. Disruptive behaviors in a community setting.
• C. Hears voices telling him to kill himself.
• D. Reports he has not needed a bath in 4 months.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's dangerous and disruptive behaviors, along with auditory hallucinations of self-harm, suggest a need for involuntary commitment for his safety and that of others. Involuntary commitment may be warranted based on the client's poor hygiene and self-neglect, as it indicates an inability to care for himself, which can pose a risk to his well-being.

3. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?

• A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
• B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
• C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
• D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.

4. A female client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been experiencing flashbacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
• B. Advise the client to avoid triggers that cause flashbacks.
• C. Help the client stay grounded in the present moment.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy for PTSD.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks is to help them stay grounded in the present moment. This technique can reduce the intensity of flashbacks and provide a sense of safety. Encouraging the client to talk about the trauma (Choice A) may exacerbate the symptoms and should be done cautiously under professional guidance. Advising the client to avoid triggers (Choice B) is important, but solely relying on avoidance may not address the underlying issues. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial, but in the immediate context of managing flashbacks, grounding techniques are more appropriate.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
• C. Distract the client with other activities.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.

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