a client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an ssri after one week the client reports feeling no improvement in mood what is the best respon
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.

4. Which client information indicates the need for the nurse to use the CAGE questionnaire during the admission interview?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Describing oneself as a social drinker who consumes alcoholic beverages daily raises concerns about potential alcohol abuse issues. The CAGE questionnaire is a tool used to screen for alcohol use disorder. Choice A is incorrect as memory difficulties post-traumatic brain injury do not directly indicate a need for the CAGE questionnaire. Choice B is incorrect as the use of antidepressants, while important to note, does not specifically warrant the use of the CAGE questionnaire. Choice D is incorrect as a recent sexual assault, while significant, does not directly relate to the need for alcohol abuse screening using the CAGE questionnaire.

5. An older homeless client visits the psychiatric clinic to obtain a prescription renewal for alprazolam (Xanax). During the health assessment, the client complains of chest pain. Which action should the RN take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Determining if Xanax was taken recently is crucial as it helps assess whether the chest pain is related to medication use or another issue, guiding appropriate immediate care. This action can provide essential information to address the client's current complaint effectively. Referring the client to the cardiology unit (Choice A) may be premature without assessing the Xanax use first. While obtaining the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority when the client presents with chest pain and a history of taking Xanax. Assessing the client for substance abuse (Choice C) is also important but is secondary to first determining the potential link between Xanax and the chest pain.

Similar Questions

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The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?
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