Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and sits in the corner of the day room. When the nurse begins the admission assessment interview, the client is guarded, suspicious, and resists talking. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Attempt to ask the client simple questions.
• B. Postpone the client interview until the next day.
• C. Ask another nurse to talk with the client.
• D. Document the client's paranoid behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is guarded, suspicious, and resistant to talking, it is important for the nurse to attempt to ask the client simple questions. Simple questions can help build rapport, establish trust, and create a non-threatening environment. This approach may ease the client into more detailed discussions while reducing feelings of suspicion. Postponing the interview may increase the client's anxiety and distrust, while asking another nurse to talk with the client may disrupt continuity of care and the establishment of a therapeutic relationship. Documenting the client's behavior is important for the client's medical record, but it should not be the first action taken in this situation.

3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

4. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the client's body image perception.
• B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
• C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
• D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss their fears.
• B. Limit the client's time for ritualistic behavior.
• C. Assist the client to complete the ritual faster.
• D. Prevent the client from engaging in the behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing intervention when dealing with a client with OCD who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxiety triggers and work towards developing alternative coping mechanisms. Choice B, limiting the client's time for ritualistic behavior, may increase anxiety and worsen symptoms by creating a sense of urgency. Choice C, assisting the client to complete the ritual faster, does not address the underlying issues and may reinforce the behavior. Choice D, preventing the client from engaging in the behavior, can lead to increased anxiety and distress for the client.

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