Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of depression. The nurse knows that which characteristic is most indicative of depression?

• A. Grandiose ideation.
• B. Self-destructive thoughts.
• C. Suspiciousness of others.
• D. A negative view of self and the future.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A negative view of self and the future (D) is a prominent characteristic of depression. It reflects the core symptoms of low self-esteem and hopelessness that are commonly associated with this condition. Grandiose ideation (A) and suspiciousness of others (C) are more indicative of other mental health disorders like paranoia. While self-destructive thoughts (B) can be present in depression, they are not as specific and common as the negative self-view and hopelessness, making option (D) the most indicative characteristic of depression.

3. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

4. When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder in a psychiatric unit, what is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Set clear and consistent boundaries for the client.
• B. Allow the client to vent their feelings without interruption.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• D. Provide the client with frequent reassurance and support.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear and consistent boundaries is the most therapeutic nursing intervention when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This approach provides structure, promotes predictability, and helps prevent manipulative behaviors. By establishing boundaries, the nurse can maintain a safe therapeutic relationship with the client. Allowing the client to vent their feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not always be beneficial, as it could reinforce maladaptive behaviors. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be helpful but setting boundaries is more critical for individualized care. Providing the client with frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may not address the underlying issues and can contribute to dependency rather than fostering independence and coping skills.

5. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I need to avoid foods that are high in tyramine, like aged cheese and cured meats.
• B. I should take this medication with food to avoid nausea.
• C. I can drink alcohol in moderation while taking this medication.
• D. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'I can drink alcohol in moderation while taking this medication' indicates a need for further teaching because alcohol consumption can have dangerous interactions with MAOIs. MAOIs can interact with alcohol to cause a hypertensive crisis, which can be life-threatening. Choices A and B are correct statements as avoiding tyramine-rich foods and taking the medication with food can help prevent adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping an antidepressant medication like an MAOI can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

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