Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

2. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?

• A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
• C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.

3. A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?

• A. Mood swings.
• B. Extreme sadness.
• C. Manipulative behavior.
• D. Flat affect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). The client reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day.
• B. Suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime.
• C. Recommend the client exercise immediately before bedtime.
• D. Advise the client to take a sleep aid nightly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with difficulty sleeping due to depression and prescribed fluoxetine is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. This intervention can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, potentially improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep schedule. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider due to potential interactions with fluoxetine.

5. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, 'My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!' The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Splitting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger and selfishness onto his roommate. Projection is a defense mechanism where individuals attribute their own unacceptable thoughts, feelings, and motives to another person. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Denial is refusing to acknowledge an aspect of reality or experience. Rationalization is providing logical-sounding reasons to justify unacceptable behaviors or feelings. Splitting is seeing individuals as all good or all bad, with no middle ground.

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