Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning the care for a 32-year-old male client with acute depression. Which nursing intervention would be best in helping this client deal with his depression?

• A. Ensure that the client's day is filled with group activities.
• B. Assist the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt.
• C. Allow the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living.
• D. Encourage the client to explore the rationale for his depression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt (B) is the most appropriate intervention for acute depression as it helps address core emotions that may be contributing to the condition. Focusing on these emotions can aid the client in processing and coping with their feelings. Ensuring that the client's day is filled with group activities (A) might overwhelm the client, as they may not be ready for social interactions during this sensitive time. Allowing the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living (C) is more suitable for chronic cases where the client needs to regain autonomy. Encouraging the client to explore the rationale for his depression (D) is less effective in acute cases, as the focus should be on immediate emotional support and understanding rather than cognitive analysis.

2. A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
• B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
• C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
• D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.

3. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?

• A. Isolation.
• B. Stagnation.
• C. Despair.
• D. Role confusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is being treated with lorazepam (Ativan). What is the most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. This medication may cause drowsiness, so avoid driving.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for the LPN/LVN to reinforce is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan). Alcohol can enhance the sedative effects of lorazepam, increasing the risk of severe side effects and complications. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam can be taken with or without food. Choice C is not the most critical teaching point, although it is essential to avoid activities that require mental alertness until the effects of the medication are known. Choice D is incorrect because abruptly stopping lorazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

5. A client states that she hears God's voice telling her that she has sinned and needs to punish herself. Which response by the LPN/LVN is most important?

• A. How do you think you will be punished?
• B. Please tell staff when you think you need to punish yourself.
• C. What exactly do you think you have done to be punished?
• D. Let's talk about your strengths

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important response by the LPN/LVN is to encourage the client to communicate with staff when they feel the need to punish themselves. This approach can help assess the risk of self-harm and enable appropriate intervention. Choice A focuses more on the method of punishment rather than encouraging help-seeking behavior. Choice C seeks specific details about the perceived wrongdoing rather than addressing the immediate concern of self-punishment. Choice D, discussing strengths, does not directly address the client's current distress and potential self-harm risk.

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