HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?
- A. "I understand now that my negative thoughts are not always true."
- B. "I still feel down, but I am able to go to work."
- C. "I have stopped taking my antidepressant medication."
- D. "I avoid situations that make me feel anxious."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.
2. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?
- A. Pallor
- B. Cyanosis
- C. Jaundice
- D. Erythema
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.
3. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Coagulation time
- C. Prothrombin time
- D. Partial thromboplastin time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.
4. When explaining the occurrence of febrile seizures to a parents' class, what information should the nurse include?
- A. They may occur in minor illnesses.
- B. The cause is usually readily identified.
- C. They usually do not occur during the toddler years.
- D. The frequency of occurrence is greater in females than males.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'They may occur in minor illnesses.' Febrile seizures can occur even in minor illnesses, particularly in young children, and are often triggered by a rapid increase in body temperature. Choice B is incorrect because the cause of febrile seizures is not always readily identified. Choice C is incorrect as febrile seizures commonly occur in children between the ages of 6 months to 5 years, which includes the toddler years. Choice D is incorrect as febrile seizures are slightly more common in males than females.
5. A nurse has noticed several occasions in the past week when another nurse on the unit seemed drowsy and unable to focus on the issue at hand. Today, the nurse was found asleep in a chair in the break room not during a break time. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Alert the American Nurses Association.
- B. Fill out an incident report.
- C. Report the observations to the nurse manager on the unit.
- D. Leave the nurse alone to sleep.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Reporting the observations to the nurse manager is the appropriate action to ensure the safety of the clients and address potential impairment. The nurse manager can take necessary steps to assess the situation and intervene if needed. Alerting the American Nurses Association (Choice A) is not necessary at this stage as the immediate concern is the safety of clients in the unit. Filling out an incident report (Choice B) may be required later, but the priority is to address the issue promptly by involving the immediate supervisor. Leaving the nurse alone to sleep (Choice D) is not a safe option as it does not address the underlying problem of potential impairment and safety concerns; it is essential to address the issue promptly to ensure patient safety.