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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client with major depressive disorder is being treated with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which client statement indicates that CBT is having a positive effect?
- A. "I understand now that my negative thoughts are not always true."
- B. "I still feel down, but I am able to go to work."
- C. "I have stopped taking my antidepressant medication."
- D. "I avoid situations that make me feel anxious."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is a fundamental aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). In this statement, the client demonstrates insight into the fact that their negative thoughts may not always be accurate, showing progress in reframing their thoughts. Choice B indicates some improvement in functioning but does not directly relate to the core principles of CBT. Choice C is concerning as abruptly stopping antidepressant medication can be detrimental to the client's well-being. Choice D reflects avoidance behavior, which is typically a target for intervention in CBT rather than a sign of positive progress.
2. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
- A. Stop the medication if you start feeling better.
- B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
- C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
- D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.
3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?
- A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
- B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
- C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
- D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.
4. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?
- A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
- B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
- C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
- D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Offer oral fluids.
- B. Monitor vital signs.
- C. Evaluate ECT effectiveness.
- D. Encourage group participation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.
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