Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

• A. Decrease blood glucose levels
• B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
• C. Increase platelet count
• D. Lower serum bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
• B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
• C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
• D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.

3. A client with AIDS has impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Elevated temperature
• B. Generalized weakness
• C. Diminished lung sounds
• D. Pain when swallowing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with AIDS and impaired gas exchange from a respiratory infection, pain when swallowing can indicate esophageal involvement, such as esophagitis or an esophageal infection like candidiasis. These conditions can significantly impact the client's ability to take in nutrition and medications, leading to complications like dehydration and malnutrition. Therefore, immediate intervention is required to address the underlying cause and prevent further complications. Elevated temperature (choice A) may indicate infection but does not directly address the impaired gas exchange. Generalized weakness (choice B) and diminished lung sounds (choice C) are concerning but do not directly relate to the immediate need for intervention in the context of esophageal involvement in a client with impaired gas exchange.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?

• A. Increased respiratory rate
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Improved oxygen saturation
• D. Complaints of dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.

5. What is the most effective therapy for maintaining remission of acute lymphoblastic leukemia in a child?

• A. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes
• B. Long-term chemotherapy
• C. Nutritional supplements to enhance blood cell production
• D. Blood transfusions to replace ineffective red cells

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-term chemotherapy. In the case of acute lymphoblastic leukemia, the most effective approach for maintaining remission is long-term chemotherapy, particularly with methotrexate, a chemotherapeutic agent. Surgery to remove enlarged lymph nodes (choice A) is not the primary treatment for leukemia. Nutritional supplements (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but are not the mainstay of leukemia treatment. Blood transfusions (choice D) are used to manage anemia in leukemia but do not address the underlying disease process.

Similar Questions