HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.
2. When a nurse instructs a client with hearing loss about cleaning their new hearing aids, which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I use a damp cloth to clean the outside part of my hearing aids.
- B. I clean my hearing aids' ear molds with rubbing alcohol.
- C. I always keep the volume of my hearing aids turned up for better hearing.
- D. I remove the batteries from my hearing aids when not in use at night.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because cleaning the outside part of hearing aids with a damp cloth is an appropriate method. Rubbing alcohol can damage ear molds, so choice B is incorrect. Keeping the volume of hearing aids turned up high may lead to discomfort, making choice C incorrect. Removing batteries when not in use at night is good practice for battery life, but it does not directly relate to understanding cleaning instructions, so choice D is less relevant in this context.
3. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?
- A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
- B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
- C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
- D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.
4. A patient has been diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance. What intervention will the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage dairy alternatives.
- B. Monitor intake of vitamin D.
- C. Increase intake of caffeinated drinks.
- D. Assist the patient with daily activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient diagnosed with osteoporosis and lactose intolerance is to monitor their intake of vitamin D. Since the patient has lactose intolerance, encouraging dairy alternatives (Choice A) would not be appropriate. Increasing intake of caffeinated drinks (Choice C) is not beneficial for managing osteoporosis and may even have negative effects on bone health. Assisting the patient with daily activities (Choice D) is a general nursing intervention that may not directly address the specific needs related to osteoporosis and lactose intolerance.
5. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) preparing to obtain blood pressure with a regular size cuff for a client who is obese. Which of the following explanations should the nurse give the AP?
- A. Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.
- B. Using a cuff that is too large will result in an inaccurately low reading.
- C. The regular size cuff is appropriate for all clients.
- D. You should use a cuff of any size as long as it fits.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.' When obtaining blood pressure for an obese client, it is crucial to use a larger cuff to ensure an accurate reading. Choice B is incorrect because using a cuff that is too large for an obese client would actually result in an inaccurately low reading. Choice C is incorrect as a regular size cuff is not appropriate for obese clients due to their larger arm circumference. Choice D is incorrect because using a cuff of any size as long as it fits is not suitable for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings on an obese client.
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