HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to prevent a common side effect of this medication?
- A. Use the inhaler only when experiencing asthma symptoms.
- B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- C. Increase fluid intake while using the inhaler.
- D. Avoid eating or drinking for 30 minutes after using the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent a common side effect is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps reduce the risk of developing oral thrush. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because using the inhaler only when experiencing symptoms, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding eating/drinking for 30 minutes after use are not directly related to preventing oral thrush, which is the common side effect associated with corticosteroid inhalers.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What is the best initial action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
- B. Give the client 4 ounces of orange juice.
- C. Give the client a snack containing protein and carbohydrates.
- D. Encourage the client to rest until symptoms resolve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial action for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiencing hypoglycemia is to give them 4 ounces of orange juice. Orange juice quickly raises blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic client. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is not the best initial action for hypoglycemia; it is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia cases. Giving a snack containing protein and carbohydrates is not as rapid as orange juice in raising blood glucose levels during hypoglycemia. Encouraging the client to rest until symptoms resolve does not address the immediate need to raise blood glucose levels in a hypoglycemic state.
3. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Standard
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.
4. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action
- A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
- B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
- C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
- D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Seclusion should only be used when necessary and with proper documentation; otherwise, it may be considered unlawful. Placing a client in seclusion without a clear indication or proper documentation could lead to legal ramifications, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because assault and battery do not apply in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as there is no mention of the client posing an imminent threat due to a history of violence. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should not be used solely to maintain the therapeutic milieu but rather for the safety of the client and others.
5. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Record the lack of advance directive on the chart
- B. Give information about advance directives
- C. Assume that the client wishes a full code
- D. Refer this issue to the unit secretary
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.
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