HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client with asthma is prescribed a corticosteroid inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client to prevent a common side effect of this medication?
- A. Use the inhaler only when experiencing asthma symptoms.
- B. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
- C. Increase fluid intake while using the inhaler.
- D. Avoid eating or drinking for 30 minutes after using the inhaler.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the client using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent a common side effect is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. Corticosteroid inhalers can lead to oral thrush, a fungal infection in the mouth. Rinsing the mouth helps reduce the risk of developing oral thrush. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because using the inhaler only when experiencing symptoms, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding eating/drinking for 30 minutes after use are not directly related to preventing oral thrush, which is the common side effect associated with corticosteroid inhalers.
2. What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?
- A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest as much as possible.
- B. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the client's legs.
- C. Massage the client's legs to improve circulation.
- D. Encourage the client to perform ankle and foot exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 83 gtt/min
- B. 125 gtt/min
- C. 100 gtt/min
- D. 75 gtt/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL รท 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.
4. When measuring a client's blood pressure, which approach is the priority for a nurse caring for a client with hypertension?
- A. Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time
- B. Use a different arm for each measurement
- C. Measure the blood pressure while the client is standing
- D. Take multiple readings at different times of the day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct approach when measuring a client's blood pressure, especially for a client with hypertension, is to obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time. Consistency in measurement conditions helps ensure accurate and comparable blood pressure readings. Using a different arm for each measurement (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to variations in readings. Measuring the blood pressure while the client is standing (Choice C) is not the standard practice and may not provide accurate results. Taking multiple readings at different times of the day (Choice D) may be useful for monitoring blood pressure trends but is not the priority when ensuring accurate individual readings.
5. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Arterial pH of 7.20
- D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
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