a client with a spinal cord injury at the level of t1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia which symptom is indicative of this condition
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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

2. A client with Parkinson's disease is experiencing difficulty swallowing. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the client in an upright position during meals is the correct intervention to prevent aspiration in a client with Parkinson's disease. This position helps facilitate swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the client to eat quickly can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Choice B is not the best option as straws may not prevent aspiration effectively. Choice D is incorrect as thin liquids can actually increase the risk of aspiration in individuals with swallowing difficulties.

3. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a cataract extraction today?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a cataract extraction is that light housekeeping is safe to do, but heavy lifting should be avoided to prevent increased intraocular pressure. Choice A is incorrect as the eye shield is usually worn at night to protect the eye. Choice B is incorrect as eye ointment is usually applied after eye drops to avoid washing away the ointment. Choice D is incorrect as sexual activities should be avoided until the follow-up appointment to prevent complications.

4. The wife of a client with Parkinson's disease expresses concern because her husband has lost so much weight. Which teaching is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best teaching for the nurse to provide is to invite friends over regularly to share meal times. This can help in making meal times more enjoyable for the client with Parkinson's disease, potentially encouraging him to eat more. Encouraging clear liquids between meals (choice B) may not address the underlying issue of weight loss. Coaching the client to make an intentional effort to swallow (choice C) may not be effective if the weight loss is due to other factors related to Parkinson's disease. While prescribing an appetite stimulant (choice D) could be an option, it is usually recommended to explore non-pharmacological interventions first, making choice A the most appropriate initial teaching intervention.

5. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

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