a client with a spinal cord injury at the level of t1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia which symptom is indicative of this condition
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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. A client with a spinal cord injury at the level of T1 is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia. Which symptom is indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries at T6 or above. It is characterized by a sudden onset of severe hypertension, pounding headache, profuse sweating, nasal congestion, and flushing of the skin above the level of injury. The severe headache is a key symptom resulting from uncontrolled hypertension. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as autonomic dysreflexia typically presents with hypertension, not hypotension, tachycardia, or flushed skin below the level of injury.

2. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client diagnosed with GERD?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Minimize symptoms by wearing loose, comfortable clothing.' Wearing loose, comfortable clothing can help reduce pressure on the abdomen, which can alleviate GERD symptoms. Option A is incorrect as sleeping without using pillows is not a recommended practice for managing GERD. Option B is incorrect because it suggests adjusting food intake to five small meals throughout the day instead of three full meals with no snacks, which may not be suitable for everyone with GERD. Option D is incorrect as avoiding participation in any aerobic exercise program is not a standard recommendation for managing GERD; in fact, engaging in low-impact exercises like walking or swimming can be beneficial.

3. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.

4. A client with COPD is receiving home oxygen therapy. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching for a client with COPD receiving home oxygen therapy is to ensure the oxygen tank is stored in a secure upright position. This is crucial to prevent accidents such as leaks or falls that can lead to serious injury or damage. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the oxygen flow rate during physical activity without a healthcare provider's guidance can be harmful. Choice B is incorrect as smoking near an oxygen source can cause a fire hazard. Choice C is incorrect as petroleum jelly is flammable and should not be used around oxygen due to the risk of combustion.

5. When is the best time to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer pancreatic enzyme replacement before meals and snacks. This timing is crucial as it allows the enzymes to assist in the digestion of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins that are consumed during the meals. Administering the replacement after meals and snacks would not be effective as the enzymes need to be present in the digestive system when food is consumed. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not align with the optimal timing for pancreatic enzyme replacement administration.

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