a client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs what is the most important assessment fo
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed prednisone. What information should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Do not discontinue the medication abruptly.' It is crucial for clients prescribed prednisone to not stop the medication suddenly to prevent adrenal insufficiency, as this medication suppresses the body's natural production of cortisol. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, not necessarily to prevent stomach upset. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid sunlight while taking prednisone. Choice D is not directly related to prednisone use; while adequate fluid intake is generally beneficial, it is not a specific instruction for prednisone administration.

3. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.

4. A home health nurse who has attended a training session for the therapeutic use of aromatherapy with essential oils is planning to use this modality with some of her clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse consult the provider before using this complementary therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: a client who has asthma. Essential oils have the potential to trigger asthma symptoms due to their strong scents and chemical components. Consulting with the healthcare provider is crucial before using aromatherapy with essential oils to ensure the safety and well-being of the client with asthma. Choices B, C, and D do not pose immediate risks with aromatherapy use, making them less of a priority for consultation compared to asthma. Clients with diabetes, hypertension, or depression do not have the same immediate risks associated with the use of aromatherapy as clients with asthma. However, it is still advisable for the nurse to be aware of any potential interactions or contraindications with these conditions and consult with the provider if needed.

5. A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses are overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An overdue menses might indicate a potential cause of abdominal pain, especially in the context of recent emotional stress. While the client's temperature, crying, and soft abdomen are important observations, the priority should be given to the overdue menses as it could provide crucial information related to the abdominal pain and the client's overall health status. The emotional distress may have a secondary impact on the physical symptoms, making the menstrual status a critical observation to address first.

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