Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

2. During an IV catheter insertion demonstration, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding of the procedure?

• A. “I will thread the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• B. “I will insert the needle into the client’s skin at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up.”
• C. “I will apply pressure approximately 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle.”
• D. “I will select a vein in the antecubital fossa for IV insertion based on its size and easily accessible location.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for IV catheter insertion involves inserting the needle at a 10 to 30-degree angle with the bevel up. This angle facilitates proper vein puncture, reduces the risk of complications, and minimizes trauma to the vein. Choice A is incorrect because threading the needle into the vein at an angle of 10 to 30 degrees with the bevel up is the correct technique, not threading it all the way into the vein. Choice C is incorrect because applying pressure 1.2 inches below the insertion site before removing the needle is not a standard step in IV catheter insertion. Choice D is incorrect because selecting the antecubital fossa vein solely based on its size and accessibility may not be the most appropriate criterion; vein selection should also consider factors like vein condition and patient comfort.

3. Which statement made by a client indicates to the nurse that they may have a thought disorder?

• A. 'I'm so angry about this. Wait until my partner hears about this.'
• B. 'I'm a little confused. What time is it?'
• C. 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?'
• D. 'I'm fine. It's my daughter who has the problem.'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The statement 'I can't find my missing shoes. Have you seen them?' displays disorganized thinking or speech, which is characteristic of a thought disorder. The mention of 'missing shoes' in a context that does not make logical sense suggests a disturbance in thought processes. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate disorganized thinking typical of thought disorders. Option A reflects emotional expression, option B indicates mild confusion, and option D shows a redirection of focus to someone else's problem.

4. A nurse manager is overseeing the care on a unit. Which of the following should the nurse manager identify as a violation of HIPAA guidelines?

• A. A nurse who is caring for a client reviews the client's medical chart with the nursing student who is working with the nurse.
• B. A nurse asks a nurse from another unit to assist with her documentation.
• C. A nurse who is caring for a client returns a call to the client's durable power of attorney for health care designee to discuss the client's care.
• D. A nurse discusses a client's status with the physical therapist who is caring for the client at the bedside.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. HIPAA guidelines specify that only healthcare professionals directly involved in a patient's care should access their medical information. Asking a nurse from another unit to assist with documentation involves sharing patient information with someone not directly caring for the patient, which violates HIPAA guidelines. Choices A, C, and D involve individuals directly involved in the client's care, making them appropriate actions in line with HIPAA regulations. Choice A involves educating a nursing student under the supervision of the nurse, which is permissible. Choice C involves communicating with the client's designated healthcare decision-maker, which is also allowed under HIPAA. Choice D involves discussing the client's status with another healthcare professional directly involved in the client's care, which is within HIPAA guidelines.

5. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

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