HESI RN
HESI Pediatrics Practice Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic alkalosis.
- B. Respiratory acidosis.
- C. Metabolic acidosis.
- D. Respiratory alkalosis.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.
2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of thyroid therapy used to treat a 5-month-old with hypothyroidism. Which behavior indicates that the treatment has been effective?
- A. Laughs readily, turns from back to side.
- B. Has strong Moro and tonic neck reflexes.
- C. Keeps fists clenched, opens hands when grasping an object.
- D. Can lift head but not chest when lying on abdomen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In infants, laughing readily and turning from back to side are developmental milestones that indicate effective thyroid therapy and normal development. These actions demonstrate improved muscle tone, coordination, and overall growth, which are key indicators of successful treatment for hypothyroidism in infants. Choices B, C, and D describe behaviors that are not specific indicators of thyroid therapy effectiveness in treating hypothyroidism in infants.
3. The nurse is assessing a 4-month-old infant who has just received routine immunizations. The mother reports that the baby has been fussy and has a low-grade fever since the immunizations. What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. These are common side effects and should resolve within a few days
- B. Your baby may be having an allergic reaction to the immunizations
- C. You should bring your baby to the clinic immediately for evaluation
- D. You should give your baby aspirin to help with the fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response by the nurse is to reassure the mother that fussiness and low-grade fever are common side effects of immunizations in infants and should resolve within a few days. It is essential to educate the mother about these expected reactions to alleviate her concerns. Choice B is incorrect because allergic reactions to immunizations usually present with more severe symptoms such as difficulty breathing or swelling. Choice C is not warranted unless there are concerning symptoms present. Choice D is inappropriate as aspirin is contraindicated in infants due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.
4. What is the recommended analgesia for preparing a school-age child for a lumbar puncture (LP)?
- A. Ondansetron (Zofran) 4 mg / 5 ml PO TID.
- B. Codeine 10 mg PO 30 minutes before the procedure.
- C. A transdermal fentanyl (Duragesic) patch immediately before the procedure.
- D. EMLA (eutectic mixtures of local anesthetics) 2.5 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For a lumbar puncture in a school-age child, EMLA cream should be applied 2.5 hours before the procedure. EMLA is commonly used to numb the skin, reducing pain and discomfort for the child during the procedure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because ondansetron is an antiemetic, codeine is an opioid analgesic that may not be suitable for children, and transdermal fentanyl is a strong opioid that is not typically used for local anesthesia in children undergoing lumbar puncture.
5. A 3-year-old child with a high fever and sore throat is brought to the clinic. The nurse observes that the child is drooling and has difficulty swallowing. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer antipyretic medication
- B. Prepare for emergency airway management
- C. Offer the child ice chips to suck on
- D. Assess the child’s hydration status
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a 3-year-old child with drooling, difficulty swallowing, high fever, and sore throat, the nurse should prioritize preparing for emergency airway management. These signs may indicate epiglottitis, a condition that can quickly obstruct the airway, leading to respiratory distress and potentially fatal outcomes if not managed promptly. Administering antipyretic medication (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Offering ice chips (Choice C) is contraindicated as the child has difficulty swallowing. Assessing hydration status (Choice D) is important but not the priority when the airway is at risk.
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