Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic acidosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

2. A child with Graves' disease who is taking propranolol (Inderal) is seen in the clinic. The nurse should monitor the child for which therapeutic response?

• A. Increased weight gain
• B. Decreased heart rate
• C. Reduced headaches
• D. Diminished fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Decreased heart rate.' Propranolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including tachycardia. Monitoring for a decreased heart rate is important as it indicates the drug's therapeutic response in controlling the elevated heart rate associated with Graves' disease. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, reduced headaches, and diminished fatigue are not typical therapeutic responses to propranolol in the context of managing Graves' disease.

3. A 2-year-old boy begins to cry when the mother starts to leave. What is the nurse's best response in this situation?

• A. Let me read this book to you.
• B. Two years old usually stop crying the minute the parent leaves.
• C. Now be a big boy. Mommy will be back soon.
• D. Let's wave bye-bye to mommy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Waving bye-bye to mommy helps the child understand that the separation is temporary.

4. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
• B. Observe him carefully.
• C. Call a CODE.
• D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.

5. A 2-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit.
• B. Administer the scheduled dose.
• C. Calculate the safe dose range.
• D. Review the serum digoxin level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario since the heart rate of 128 bpm is within an acceptable range for a 2-year-old child with heart failure. Monitoring for signs of digoxin toxicity is important; however, the immediate action required is to administer the scheduled dose as prescribed based on the heart rate assessment.

Similar Questions