Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic acidosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis leads to obstruction at the outlet of the stomach, causing frequent vomiting and loss of stomach acids. This results in a loss of hydrochloric acid and hydrogen ions, leading to metabolic alkalosis due to an increase in serum bicarbonate levels. Therefore, the correct answer is metabolic alkalosis. Choice B, respiratory acidosis, is incorrect as it is not typically associated with pyloric stenosis. Choice C, metabolic acidosis, is incorrect because the loss of stomach acids in pyloric stenosis leads to metabolic alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D, respiratory alkalosis, is also incorrect as it is not the usual consequence of pyloric stenosis.

2. What is the priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup presenting with a barking cough and stridor?

• A. Administer a corticosteroid
• B. Obtain a throat culture
• C. Administer nebulized epinephrine
• D. Place the child in an upright position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority action for a 2-year-old child with croup and stridor is to administer nebulized epinephrine. Nebulized epinephrine helps reduce airway swelling, alleviate symptoms, and improve breathing by causing vasoconstriction and reducing upper airway edema. Administering a corticosteroid may be done but is not the priority in this scenario. Obtaining a throat culture is not necessary for the immediate management of croup. Placing the child in an upright position can aid in breathing but is not the priority action when the child is presenting with stridor.

3. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. The child’s parent reports that the child has been more irritable and less active over the past week. The nurse notes a petechial rash on the child’s trunk and extremities. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the parent about recent exposure to contagious diseases
• B. Review the child’s immunization record
• C. Measure the child’s temperature
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the child's presentation with irritability, decreased activity, and a petechial rash raises concern for a serious condition like meningitis. Petechial rash can be indicative of meningitis or other critical illnesses. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure prompt evaluation and appropriate management. Asking about recent exposure to contagious diseases may be relevant later but is not the most urgent action. Reviewing the child's immunization record and measuring the temperature can provide valuable information but should not take precedence over the need to address the potential serious condition indicated by the petechial rash.

4. A child is recovering from an appendectomy. The parent asks when the child can resume normal activities. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The child can resume normal activities as soon as they feel up to it
• B. The child should avoid strenuous activities for at least 2 weeks
• C. The child can resume normal activities after the stitches are removed
• D. The child should avoid all physical activities for the next month

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After an appendectomy, it is important for the child to avoid strenuous activities for at least 2 weeks to allow for proper healing. Resuming normal activities too soon can put unnecessary strain on the healing process and increase the risk of complications.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 6-year-old child diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. Which finding should the healthcare provider report promptly to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dark-colored urine
• B. Mild periorbital edema
• C. Blood pressure of 150/95 mm Hg
• D. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypertension is a serious complication of glomerulonephritis, as it can lead to further renal damage. A blood pressure reading of 150/95 mm Hg is elevated and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for immediate management to prevent complications. Dark-colored urine can be a common symptom of glomerulonephritis due to blood in the urine but is not as urgent as managing hypertension. Mild periorbital edema can also be seen in glomerulonephritis but is not as concerning as elevated blood pressure. Urine output of 250 mL in 24 hours indicates oliguria, which is a concern, but addressing hypertension takes priority to prevent further renal damage.

Similar Questions