Nursing Elites

1. A client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Observe the appearance of the stool
• B. Assess the client’s skin turgor
• C. Review the client’s laboratory values
• D. Auscultate the client’s bowel sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the stool’s appearance should be implemented first as it helps determine the nature and possible severity of the diarrhea, which is essential in managing the side effect. Assessing skin turgor (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Reviewing laboratory values (Choice C) can provide additional information but is not the initial step. Auscultating bowel sounds (Choice D) is not the priority when the client is experiencing diarrhea.

2. Before leaving the room of a confused client, the nurse notes that a half bow knot was used to attach the client's wrist restraints to the movable portion of the client's bed frame. What action should the nurse take before leaving the room?

• A. Ensure that the knot can be quickly released.
• B. Tie the knot with a double turn or square knot.
• C. Move the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails.
• D. Ensure that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take before leaving the room is to ensure that the knot can be quickly released. Using a half bow knot to attach the client's wrist restraints allows for quick release in case of an emergency. This is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client and complying with restraint policies. Tying the knot with a double turn or square knot (Choice B) would make it difficult to release quickly when needed. Moving the ties so the restraints are secured to the side rails (Choice C) does not address the immediate need for a quick release. Ensuring that the restraints are snug against the client's wrist (Choice D) may not be appropriate if the restraints need to be quickly removed for the client's safety.

3. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Administer an anxiolytic
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

4. An adult male with a 6 cm thoracic aneurysm is being prepared for surgery. The nurse reports to the healthcare provider that the client’s blood pressure is 220/112 mmHg, so an antihypertensive agent is added to the client’s IV infusion. Which finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Reports a tearing, sharp pain between his shoulder blades
• B. Blood pressure reading of 200/100 mmHg 15 minutes later
• C. Rose-colored urine draining from the urinary catheter
• D. Sinus tachycardia with frequent premature ventricular beats (PVC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A tearing, sharp pain between the shoulder blades may indicate aortic dissection, a serious complication requiring immediate intervention. This symptom is highly concerning in a patient with a thoracic aneurysm. Choice B is not as urgent as the pain symptom described in choice A. Choice C could indicate hematuria but is not as critical as the potential aortic dissection in choice A. Choice D, sinus tachycardia with PVCs, may be related to the patient's condition but is not as indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation as the tearing, sharp pain indicative of aortic dissection.

5. An 8-year-old child who weighs 60 pounds receives an order for Polycilin (Ampicillin) suspension 25 mg/kg/day divided into a dose every 8 hours. The medication is labeled '125 mg/5 ml'. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose every 8 hours?

• A. 5
• B. 10
• C. 15
• D. 20

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculate the daily dose first: 60 pounds x 25 mg/kg = 1500 mg/day. Divide by 3 doses = 500 mg/dose. Convert to mL: (500 mg / 125 mg) x 5 ml = 20 ml. However, the question asks for the dose per administration every 8 hours, which is 1/3 of the daily dose. So, the correct calculation should be (20 ml / 3) = 6.67 ml, which rounds to 5 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 ml. Choice B (10 ml) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the frequency of dosing. Choice C (15 ml) is incorrect as it overestimates the dose. Choice D (20 ml) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration every 8 hours.

Similar Questions