a client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea which nursing action should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

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HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client taking clopidogrel reports the onset of diarrhea. Which nursing action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the stool’s appearance should be implemented first as it helps determine the nature and possible severity of the diarrhea, which is essential in managing the side effect. Assessing skin turgor (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation. Reviewing laboratory values (Choice C) can provide additional information but is not the initial step. Auscultating bowel sounds (Choice D) is not the priority when the client is experiencing diarrhea.

2. Parents who have one male child with sickle cell anemia are concerned about having more children with the disease. What client teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Each child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia if both parents are carriers of the trait. Choice A is incorrect because not all future children will be carriers; some may have the disease. Choice C is incorrect as both male and female children can inherit the sickle cell disease trait. Choice D is incorrect as the chance is not fixed at one out of four; each child has an independent 25% chance of having the disease.

3. The charge nurse is making assignments for clients on an endocrine unit. Which client is best to assign to a new graduate nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A new graduate nurse can manage the care of a stable client returning from a thyroidectomy. Choice B is not suitable for a new graduate nurse as it involves complex symptoms of Cushing's syndrome that require more experience and knowledge. Choice C presents a client with acute manifestations of Addison's disease, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse. Choice D involves a client with Graves' disease experiencing nervousness and exophthalmos, which also require a higher level of expertise to manage effectively.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

5. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.

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