HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea. During the assessment, the nurse learns that the client is a migrant worker who often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?
- A. asbestos
- B. silica dust
- C. histoplasmosis
- D. carbon monoxide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's symptoms of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can result from exposure to gasoline-powered equipment like pressure washers. Asbestos (Choice A) exposure would typically present with respiratory issues and cancer but not the rapid onset of symptoms described. Silica dust (Choice B) exposure is associated with respiratory conditions like silicosis, not the multisystem symptoms in the scenario. Histoplasmosis (Choice C) is a fungal infection that primarily affects the lungs and is not related to the client's exposure to a gasoline-powered pressure washer.
2. The family health care plan includes the following listed in sequence:
- A. objective, statement of the problem, intervention, and evaluation
- B. objectives, intervention, evaluation, and statement of the problem
- C. evaluation, statement of the problems, objectives, and interventions
- D. statement of the problems, objectives, intervention, and evaluation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a family health care plan, the correct sequence should start with identifying the problems (statement of the problems), setting objectives, planning interventions, and then evaluating the outcomes. This sequence ensures a logical and structured approach to healthcare planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not follow the logical order of healthcare planning steps.
3. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds:
- A. The complaints of at least 3 common findings.
- B. The absence of any opportunistic infection.
- C. CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200.
- D. Developmental delays in children.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A CD4 count less than 200 cells/mm³ is a diagnostic criterion for AIDS. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is vague and does not reflect the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. Choice B is not accurate, as the presence of opportunistic infections, not their absence, is indicative of AIDS. Choice D is unrelated to the diagnosis of AIDS in adults.
4. When admitting a client with Parkinson's disease to the home healthcare service, which nursing diagnosis should have priority in planning care?
- A. Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.
- B. Ineffective coping related to depression and dysfunction due to disease progression.
- C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness.
- D. Fear related to constant possibility of experiencing seizures.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.' For a client with Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility is a priority nursing diagnosis because of the characteristic motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Addressing impaired physical mobility is crucial to enhance the client's quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client with Parkinson's disease. Ineffective coping (Choice B) and fear of seizures (Choice D) may be concerns but are not the priority. Ineffective breathing pattern (Choice C) is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.
5. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?
- A. 13 to 18 years of age.
- B. 11 to 12 years of age.
- C. 18 to 24 months of age.
- D. 4 to 6 years of age.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.
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