Nursing Elites

1. A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea. During the assessment, the nurse learns that the client is a migrant worker who often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?

• A. asbestos
• B. silica dust
• C. histoplasmosis
• D. carbon monoxide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can result from exposure to gasoline-powered equipment like pressure washers. Asbestos (Choice A) exposure would typically present with respiratory issues and cancer but not the rapid onset of symptoms described. Silica dust (Choice B) exposure is associated with respiratory conditions like silicosis, not the multisystem symptoms in the scenario. Histoplasmosis (Choice C) is a fungal infection that primarily affects the lungs and is not related to the client's exposure to a gasoline-powered pressure washer.

2. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

3. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

4. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
• B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
• C. A significant decrease in appetite
• D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.

5. The nurse is caring for a child who has just returned from surgery following a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Offer ice chips every 2 hours
• B. Place the child in a semi-Fowler's position
• C. Encourage the child to drink from a cup
• D. Observe swallowing patterns

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing swallowing patterns is crucial post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy to detect signs of bleeding. Offering ice chips instead of ice cream helps prevent throat irritation. Placing the child in a semi-Fowler's position promotes airway patency and reduces the risk of aspiration. Encouraging the child to drink from a cup instead of a straw minimizes the risk of dislodging the surgical site.

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