Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to a long-term care facility, and the nurse and a new employee are conducting medication reconciliation. The nurse notes that oxybutynin has been prescribed. The nurse realizes the new employee understands the drug's effect if the new employee explains that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?

• A. Pain
• B. Depression
• C. Overactive bladder
• D. Chronic anxiety

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is prescribed to treat overactive bladder by reducing muscle spasms of the bladder. It is classified as an anticholinergic medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxycodone is an opioid used for pain management. Bupropion is an antidepressant used to treat depression. Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to manage anxiety disorders.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed tofacitinib. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid live vaccines while taking this medication.
• B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.
• D. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tofacitinib is an immunosuppressive medication used in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients taking tofacitinib should avoid live vaccines because the medication can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent any complications related to live vaccines during their treatment.

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