HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client has sublingual nitroglycerine tablets prescribed to treat angina. The nurse realizes the client requires further education if the client makes which statements? (Select one that doesn't apply.)
- A. I will need to replace the nitroglycerine tablets every 3 to 5 months, not in a year.
- B. I should continue taking nitroglycerine tablets if I develop a headache.
- C. I understand nitroglycerine tablets do not cause addiction.
- D. If I feel dizzy when I take these, I should sit down or lie down until I feel better.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerine sublingual tablets need to be replaced every 3 to 5 months, not every year, making statement A incorrect. While nitroglycerine can cause a headache, it is important to continue taking the prescribed nitroglycerine if the client has angina, making statement B accurate. Nitroglycerine tablets do not cause addiction, so statement C is correct. Dizziness and weakness are associated with the hypotensive effect of nitroglycerine; therefore, if the client feels dizzy when taking them, they should sit down or lie down until they feel better. Taking nitroglycerine tablets before an activity known to cause angina can help prevent angina attacks.
2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for how do you know it's been effective?
- A. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Decreased white blood cell count
- C. Decreased wheezing upon auscultation
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The effectiveness of metaproterenol, a bronchodilator, is assessed by a decrease in wheezing upon auscultation. Wheezing indicates airway constriction, and a reduction in wheezing signifies improved airflow and bronchodilation due to the medication's action. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the expected outcome of metaproterenol therapy.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed ziprasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. QT prolongation
- B. Weight gain
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: QT prolongation. Ziprasidone is known to cause QT prolongation, which can potentially lead to serious cardiac issues. Monitoring the client's ECG is crucial to detect any changes and prevent adverse effects related to QT interval prolongation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not commonly associated with ziprasidone. While weight gain can be a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not a prominent side effect of ziprasidone. Dry mouth and increased appetite are also not typically linked to ziprasidone use.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
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