Nursing Elites

1. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• B. Potassium hydroxide prep
• C. Wound culture
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.

2. Which of the following techniques represents the most appropriate method of opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury?

• A. lift up the chin and hyperextend the neck
• B. tilt the head back without hyperextending the neck
• C. gently lift the chin while maintaining slight flexion of the neck
• D. perform the technique as you would for an older child or adult

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury is to tilt the head back without hyperextending the neck. This method helps to keep the airway open without risking injury to the infant's delicate neck structures. Choice A, lifting up the chin and hyperextending the neck, can potentially harm the infant's neck. Choice C, gently lifting the chin while maintaining slight flexion of the neck, is not as effective as tilting the head back. Choice D is incorrect as infants require a different approach compared to older children or adults due to their anatomical differences.

3. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their health care provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.

4. Congenital heart defects have traditionally been divided into acyanotic or cyanotic defects. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of congenital heart defects, this system in clinical practice is

• A. helpful because it explains the hemodynamics involved
• B. helpful because children with cyanotic defects are easily identified
• C. problematic because cyanosis is rarely present in children
• D. problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The classification system of congenital heart defects into acyanotic or cyanotic defects is problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis, complicating the differentiation. Cyanosis can occur in some acyanotic defects due to various reasons such as right-to-left shunting or decreased pulmonary blood flow, making the classification based solely on cyanosis misleading. Choice A is incorrect because while the classification may involve hemodynamics, the main issue lies in the potential for acyanotic defects to develop cyanosis. Choice B is incorrect as the ease of identifying children with cyanotic defects does not address the main problem with the classification system. Choice C is also incorrect as the presence of cyanosis is not the only factor determining the classification's validity.

5. A group of students is reviewing the components of the endocrine system. The students demonstrate understanding of the review when they identify what as the primary function of this system?

• A. Regulation of water balance
• B. Hormonal secretion
• C. Cellular metabolism
• D. Growth stimulation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary function of the endocrine system is hormonal secretion. This system is responsible for producing and releasing hormones that regulate various bodily functions such as growth, metabolism, and mood. Choice A, regulation of water balance, is more related to the functions of the renal system rather than the endocrine system. Choice C, cellular metabolism, is a general cellular process that involves various systems, not specific to the endocrine system. Choice D, growth stimulation, though hormones can influence growth, it is not the primary function of the endocrine system. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

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