Nursing Elites

1. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?

• A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
• B. Potassium hydroxide prep
• C. Wound culture
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.

2. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain
• B. Left lower quadrant pain
• C. Rebound tenderness
• D. Epigastric pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.

3. A 2-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Kawasaki disease. What is the primary goal of therapy during the acute phase?

• A. Preventing coronary artery aneurysms
• B. Reducing fever
• C. Improving cardiac function
• D. Preventing dehydration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary goal of therapy during the acute phase of Kawasaki disease is to prevent coronary artery aneurysms, which are a serious complication of this condition. Coronary artery aneurysms can lead to long-term cardiovascular issues, making prevention crucial. While reducing fever and improving cardiac function are important aspects of managing Kawasaki disease, the primary focus in the acute phase is on preventing coronary artery aneurysms. Dehydration prevention is also essential but not the primary goal during the acute phase of this disease.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching a class of new parents about how to position their infants during the first few weeks of life. Which position is safest?

• A. On the back, lying flat
• B. On either side, lying flat
• C. Head slightly elevated on the left side
• D. Head slightly elevated on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'On the back, lying flat.' Placing infants on their back to sleep is recommended to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position promotes safe sleep practices and helps prevent accidental suffocation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as placing infants on their side or with the head slightly elevated may increase the risk of breathing difficulties or other hazards during sleep.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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