Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing surgery using steel bar placement to correct pectus excavatum, what position should the nurse instruct the parents to avoid for the child?

• A. Semi-Fowler position.
• B. Supine position.
• C. High Fowler position.
• D. Side-lying position.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After undergoing surgery for pectus excavatum correction with steel bar placement, the nurse should instruct the parents to avoid placing the child in a side-lying position. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the steel bar, which could compromise the surgical outcome. Semi-Fowler, supine, and high Fowler positions do not pose the same risk of displacing the steel bar and are generally safe and comfortable for the child in this postoperative period.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a group of parents on preventing childhood obesity. What should the professional recommend?

• A. Encourage high-calorie snacks
• B. Limit screen time
• C. Encourage fast food as a treat
• D. Allow the child to eat freely

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit screen time when preventing childhood obesity. Excessive screen time is associated with a sedentary lifestyle and can lead to increased consumption of unhealthy foods. Encouraging high-calorie snacks (choice A) contradicts the goal of preventing obesity. While fast food as an occasional treat (choice C) can be acceptable in moderation, it should not be encouraged as a preventive measure against obesity. Allowing the child to eat freely (choice D) without guidance can lead to overconsumption of unhealthy foods and contribute to obesity risk.

3. The parent of a 2-year-old child is informed by the nurse that the toddler’s negativism is expected at this age. What need is this behavior meeting?

• A. Trust
• B. Attention
• C. Discipline
• D. Independence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Negativism in toddlers commonly occurs around the age of 2 as they begin to assert their independence and autonomy. At this stage, children are exploring their own will and preferences, leading to behaviors like defiance or negativism. Independence (choice D) is the primary need being met by this behavior as toddlers strive to establish their individuality and decision-making. While trust (choice A) is crucial for forming secure attachments, it is not the main need driving negativism in this case. Seeking attention (choice B) may be a behavior exhibited by children, but it is not the fundamental need being fulfilled by negativism. Discipline (choice C) is important for setting boundaries and teaching appropriate conduct, but it is not the primary need being addressed by negativism in toddlers.

4. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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