Nursing Elites

1. Which statement about appendicitis is accurate and true?

• A. Appendicitis is more common among females than males.
• B. A high fiber diet is a risk factor associated with appendicitis.
• C. Left lower quadrant pain is suggestive of appendicitis.
• D. McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: McBurney's point tenderness is suggestive of appendicitis. McBurney's point is located in the right lower abdomen and tenderness at this point is a classic sign of appendicitis. Choice A is incorrect as appendicitis is slightly more common in males than females. Choice B is incorrect as a high fiber diet is actually considered to be protective against appendicitis. Choice C is incorrect as appendicitis typically presents with pain in the right lower quadrant, not the left.

2. Select the criteria that is accurately paired with its indication of birth weight or gestational age.

• A. Low birth weight: The neonate's weight is less than 1,500 g at the time of delivery.
• B. Appropriate for gestational age: The neonate's weight ranges from the 10th to the 90th percentile.
• C. Large for gestational age: The neonate's weight is above the 99th percentile.
• D. Small for gestational age: The neonate's weight is below the 20th percentile.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Appropriate for gestational age (AGA) indicates a neonate's weight ranging from the 10th to the 90th percentile. This range signifies that the baby's weight is within the normal range for their gestational age. Choices A, C, and D provide inaccurate information about the criteria and do not correctly correspond to the indicated birth weight or gestational age. Low birth weight typically refers to a weight below 2,500 g, large for gestational age above the 90th percentile, and small for gestational age below the 10th percentile.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse recommend for further evaluation and possible intervention?

• A. A client who is at 28 weeks gestation and has a negative Coombs titer
• B. A client who is 39 weeks of gestation and has a negative contraction stress test
• C. A client who is at 35 weeks of gestation and has a biophysical profile of 6
• D. A client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and has an L/S ratio of 2:1

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A biophysical profile of 6 at 35 weeks of gestation indicates a need for further evaluation and possible intervention. A negative Coombs titer at 28 weeks gestation (Choice A) is within normal limits. A negative contraction stress test at 39 weeks gestation (Choice B) is expected as the pregnancy nears term. An L/S ratio of 2:1 at 37 weeks of gestation (Choice D) is consistent with fetal lung maturity.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is performing triage for a group of clients who were in a train crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse tag as emergent?

• A. A client who has an open fracture of the femur
• B. A client who has periorbital ecchymosis
• C. A client who has asymmetrical thorax
• D. A client who has a deep-partial thickness burn on the lower extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a triage situation, an asymmetrical thorax suggests a potentially life-threatening condition such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, requiring immediate attention. This client should be tagged as emergent. Periorbital ecchymosis and deep-partial thickness burns, while concerning, may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. An open fracture of the femur, although serious, can be prioritized after addressing emergent cases.

5. A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent
• B. Contact the client's next of kin to obtain consent for treatment
• C. Have the client sign a consent for treatment
• D. Notify risk management before initiating treatment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia, obtaining written consent may not be possible due to the urgency of the situation. The priority is to provide immediate treatment to ensure patient safety. Contacting the next of kin or having the client sign a consent form would cause unnecessary delays in providing critical care. Notifying risk management before initiating treatment is not the most appropriate action when dealing with a time-sensitive situation like a cardiac arrhythmia.

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