Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the risk of hyperglycemia. TPN solutions are high in glucose, and clients may be at risk of developing hyperglycemia if the infusion rate is too high or if there are underlying issues such as insulin resistance. Monitoring serum potassium (choice A) is important but not the most crucial value to monitor in clients receiving TPN. Serum sodium (choice C) and serum calcium (choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN administration and are less likely to be affected compared to blood glucose levels.

2. A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the LPN have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs?

• A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited.
• B. Blood transfusions are forbidden.
• C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed.
• D. A vegetarian diet must be followed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Blood transfusions are forbidden.' Jehovah's Witnesses typically refuse blood transfusions due to their religious beliefs. This is crucial for the LPN to consider when planning the client's care to ensure that alternative treatments are explored. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the specific beliefs and practices of Jehovah's Witnesses. Autopsy prohibition, alcohol use restrictions, and dietary preferences are not primary concerns related to the religious beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses.

3. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has tuberculosis. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional plan to initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles, so airborne precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions (Choice C) involve measures such as negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators to prevent the transmission of infectious agents that remain infectious over long distances when suspended in the air. Contact precautions (Choice A) are used for diseases that spread through direct contact with the patient or their environment. Droplet precautions (Choice B) are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, typically over short distances. Protective environment (Choice D) is used for clients who are immunocompromised to protect them from environmental pathogens, not for diseases like tuberculosis that spread through the air.

4. A client who is non-ambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Evacuate the client
• B. Attempt to extinguish the fire
• C. Call the fire department
• D. Close the door to contain the fire

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to Evacuate the client (Choice A). In the event of a fire, the safety of the client is the top priority. The RACE (Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish) mnemonic is used in fire emergencies. The first step is to Rescue or Evacuate the individual from immediate danger. Attempting to extinguish the fire (Choice B) may endanger both the client and the nurse. Calling the fire department (Choice C) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety. Closing the door to contain the fire (Choice D) is not appropriate in this scenario because the priority is to remove the client from harm's way.

5. When performing cardiac chest compressions, what is a critical concept that the nurse must understand?

• A. Push hard and deep on the chest
• B. Compress the chest at a rapid rate
• C. Perform compressions with minimal interruptions
• D. Use a two-handed technique for compressions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Push hard and deep on the chest.' Effective chest compressions during CPR should be forceful and deep enough to adequately circulate blood to vital organs. This helps maintain perfusion and increases the likelihood of a successful outcome. Compressing the chest at a rapid rate (choice B) is important but not as critical as ensuring the compressions are hard and deep. Performing compressions with minimal interruptions (choice C) is also crucial to maintain blood flow. Using a two-handed technique for compressions (choice D) may be helpful but is not as critical as the depth and force of the compressions.

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