Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
• B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
• C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
• D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

2. Physical examination of a 6-year-old reveals several bite marks in various locations on his body. X-ray examination reveals healed fractures of the ribs. The mother tells the nurse that her child is always having accidents. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. I need to inform the healthcare provider about your child's tendency to be accident-prone.
• B. Tell me more specifically about your child's accidents.
• C. I must report these injuries to the authorities because they do not seem accidental.
• D. Boys this age always seem to require more supervision and can be quite accident-prone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: (B) seeks more information in a non-threatening manner to gather additional details about the child's accidents. This response allows the nurse to explore the situation further without making assumptions. (A) fails to address the concerning findings and instead focuses on informing the healthcare provider. (C) jumps to conclusions without gathering more information, potentially causing unnecessary distress to the family. (D) dismisses the seriousness of the situation by attributing the injuries to common accidents for boys, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the issue.

3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

4. A nurse notes that a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and less communicative during the past two weeks. Which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client?

• A. Engage the client in non-threatening conversations.
• B. Schedule a daily conference with the social worker.
• C. Encourage the client's family to visit more often.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to participate in group activities. Group activities can help improve social interaction and potentially reduce feelings of isolation in depressed clients. Choice A, engaging the client in non-threatening conversations, may be helpful but may not address the underlying need for social interaction that group activities can provide. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for social engagement. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice C) is important for support but may not provide the same level of social interaction as group activities.

5. A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
• B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
• C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
• D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.

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