HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam
1. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Measure the client's cardiac output
- B. Assess neurological status q15 min
- C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
- D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.
2. After removing an IV that became infiltrated in the client’s left forearm, which site should the nurse select as a possible site to insert another IV catheter?
- A. Right hand
- B. Right forearm
- C. Left hand
- D. Right subclavian
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right hand. When an IV becomes infiltrated in the client's left forearm, it is essential to avoid the same side due to the risk of complications. Therefore, the right hand is a suitable alternative site for IV insertion. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choosing the right forearm (B) would still be on the same side, which increases the risk of complications. The left hand (C) is not a preferred option immediately after an infiltration in the left forearm. The right subclavian (D) is an invasive site typically reserved for central line placement and not a first-line choice for IV insertion.
3. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
- B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
- D. Review the client’s current list of medications
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.
4. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
- B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
- C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
- D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.
5. The nurse is preparing an older client for discharge following cataract extraction. Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching?
- A. Do not read with direct lighting for 6 weeks
- B. Avoid straining during stool passage, bending, or lifting heavy objects
- C. Irrigate conjunctiva with ophthalmic saline after applying antibiotic ointment
- D. Limit exposure to sunlight during the first 2 weeks while the cornea is healing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the discharge teaching for a client following cataract extraction is to 'Avoid straining during stool passage, bending, or lifting heavy objects.' This is crucial to prevent increased intraocular pressure after surgery, which can be harmful. Reading with direct lighting can strain the eyes but is not the primary concern post-cataract surgery. Irrigating the conjunctiva before applying antibiotic ointment is not a standard practice and may not be necessary. While limiting sunlight exposure is important for eye protection, it is secondary to avoiding activities that can increase intraocular pressure.
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