Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Measure the client's cardiac output
• B. Assess neurological status q15 min
• C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
• D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

2. What actions should the nurse take regarding an older adult male who had an abdominal cholecystectomy and has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past 24 hours, found wandering into another client’s room and returned to his own room by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (Select all that apply)

• A. Apply soft upper limb restraints and raise all four bed rails
• B. Report mental status change to the healthcare provider
• C. Assess the client’s breath sounds and oxygen saturation
• D. Assign the UAP to re-assess the client’s risk for falls

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to report the mental status change to the healthcare provider. Confusion and disorientation post-surgery can be indicative of various factors, such as electrolyte imbalances or respiratory issues, necessitating comprehensive assessment by the healthcare team. Applying restraints and raising bed rails may not address the underlying cause of the confusion, and assigning the UAP to reassess the client's risk for falls does not directly address the cognitive changes observed.

3. When assessing a client with acute asthma, the nurse is most likely to obtain which finding?

• A. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers
• B. Fever and a high-pitched inspiratory stridor
• C. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis
• D. Cough and musical breath sounds on expiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with acute asthma, a cough and wheezing or musical breath sounds on expiration are typical findings. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers (choice A) are not common in acute asthma but could be seen in chronic respiratory conditions. Fever and high-pitched inspiratory stridor (choice B) are more indicative of croup or epiglottitis. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis (choice C) are not typical findings in acute asthma.

4. After 2 days of treatment for dehydration, a child continues to vomit and have diarrhea. Normal saline is infusing, and the child’s urine output is 50ml/hour. During morning assessment, the nurse determines that the child is lethargic and difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Perform a finger stick glucose test
• B. Increase the IV fluid flow rate
• C. Review 24-hour intake and output
• D. Obtain arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy and difficulty arousing may indicate hypoglycemia, which should be assessed before other actions. Performing a finger stick glucose test is crucial to evaluate the child's blood sugar levels and address hypoglycemia promptly. Increasing the IV fluid flow rate is not indicated without knowing the glucose status. Reviewing 24-hour intake and output is important but not the priority when lethargy and difficulty arousing are present. Obtaining arterial blood gases is not the primary assessment needed in this situation.

5. For a client with pneumonia, the prescription states, “Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing.” Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?

• A. Avoiding the administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
• B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client’s respiratory rate.
• C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
• D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity. Administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods can overwhelm the body's natural defenses against high oxygen levels, causing toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is unrelated to preventing oxygen toxicity. Choice C is unsafe as removing the nasal cannula can deprive the client of necessary oxygen. Choice D, running oxygen through a hydration source, is not a standard practice for preventing oxygen toxicity.

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