HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of
- A. pulmonary infection
- B. right-to-left shunt of blood
- C. decreased workload on left side of the heart
- D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased pulmonary vascular congestion. Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent the complications associated with increased pulmonary vascular congestion, such as pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but can occur secondary to other conditions. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a feature of some congenital heart defects but not a direct complication of PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a primary reason for surgical repair of PDA, as the main concern is the impact on pulmonary circulation.
2. When picked up by a parent or the nurse, an 8-month-old infant screams and seems to be in pain. After observing this behavior, what should the nurse discuss with the parent?
- A. Accidents and the importance of preventing them
- B. Limiting the infant's playtime with other children in the family
- C. Any other behaviors that the parent may have noticed
- D. Nutrition and specific vitamins recommended for infants
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Discussing any other observed behaviors with the parent is important to identify patterns or potential issues that could be affecting the infant's well-being. By exploring additional behaviors, the nurse can gather more information to assess the infant comprehensively. This approach allows for a more holistic understanding of the infant's health status, rather than focusing solely on the observed behavior of screaming and apparent pain. Options A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the need to explore other behaviors that may provide insights into the infant's condition and well-being.
3. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who has difficulty breathing and prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?
- A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
- B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
- C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
- D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles are signs of respiratory distress in infants. These clinical manifestations can be associated with trauma, such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS), which can lead to severe head injuries and respiratory compromise. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation (Choice A) is more related to prematurity complications rather than SBS. The absence of stridor and adventitious breath sounds (Choice B) may not be specific indicators of SBS. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds (Choice C) alone may not be as concerning as the presence of retractions and use of accessory muscles in the context of a distressed infant.
4. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Inability to sweat
- D. Increased urinary output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea, which refers to rapid breathing, is an early sign of congestive heart failure. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump efficiently can lead to fluid accumulation in the lungs, causing the child to breathe faster to try to compensate for the decreased oxygen exchange. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with congestive heart failure; instead, it may indicate a different issue. Inability to sweat is not a common early sign of congestive heart failure. Increased urinary output is not a typical early sign of congestive heart failure; instead, it may be a sign of other conditions like diabetes or kidney issues.
5. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?
- A. Whenever a bleed is suspected
- B. In the morning on scheduled days
- C. At bedtime while the child is lying quietly in bed
- D. On a regular schedule at the parents’ convenience
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days ensures that there is a consistent level of the plasma component throughout the day, especially when the child is active. This timing helps to maintain adequate levels of factor VIII to prevent bleeding episodes. Choice A is incorrect because administering factor VIII only when a bleed is suspected would not provide the consistent prophylactic coverage needed for children with hemophilia. Choice C is incorrect as bedtime administration may not be practical for ensuring the plasma component is available during the child's active hours. Choice D is incorrect because administering factor VIII on a regular schedule, rather than at specific times of the day, may not optimize its effectiveness in preventing bleeding episodes.
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