Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Contact
• B. Droplet
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Droplet. Droplet precautions are required for infections that spread via droplets larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as pharyngeal diphtheria. Contact precautions are used for diseases that spread by direct or indirect contact. Airborne precautions are for diseases that spread through small particles in the air. Protective precautions are not a standard precautionary measure for specific infections like pharyngeal diphtheria.

3. A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client’s MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?

• A. Assessment
• B. Planning
• C. Intervention
• D. Evaluation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.

4. The client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will weigh myself every day at the same time.
• B. I will call my doctor if my legs swell more.
• C. I will take my water pill only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I will limit the amount of salt in my diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Taking water pills (diuretics) only when feeling short of breath is incorrect. Diuretics should be taken regularly as prescribed to help manage fluid retention in chronic heart failure. This statement indicates a need for further teaching as the client needs to understand the importance of consistent medication adherence. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of self-care management in heart failure, including daily weight monitoring, prompt reporting of worsening symptoms to the healthcare provider, and dietary sodium restriction, respectively.

5. A client is incontinent of loose stool and is reporting a painful perineum. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Assess the client's perineum
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Clean the area with a mild cleanser
• D. Apply a barrier cream to the affected area

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client's perineum is the priority nursing action in this situation. By checking the perineum, the nurse can evaluate for skin damage, irritation, infection, or other issues that may be causing the client's pain. This assessment is crucial to determine the appropriate interventions needed to address the client's discomfort and prevent complications. Administering pain medication, cleaning the area with a mild cleanser, or applying a barrier cream are important interventions but should follow the initial assessment of the perineum to ensure comprehensive care and effective management of the client's condition. Prioritizing assessment allows for a targeted and individualized approach to care, enhancing the client's overall well-being.

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