Nursing Elites

1. A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse’s best response?

• A. “Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors.”
• B. “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.”
• C. “It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable.”
• D. “This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.” At 18 months, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and independence. They may exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and defiance as they assert their independence and test limits. It is crucial for parents and caregivers to understand that these behaviors are typical for toddlers at this age. Choice A is incorrect because discipline should be age-appropriate and focus on positive reinforcement rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach and can lead to feelings of abandonment. Choice D is inaccurate as the described behavior is more related to asserting independence rather than the initiative stage of development.

2. Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?

• A. Begin positive pressure ventilations
• B. Provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing
• C. Assess the newborn's skin condition and color
• D. Start chest compressions and contact medical control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn, a heart rate below 100 beats/min indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing blow-by oxygen or assessing skin condition/color may not address the primary issue of inadequate oxygenation due to the low heart rate. Starting chest compressions and contacting medical control is not warranted as the newborn is breathing spontaneously and only has a slightly low heart rate, which can be managed initially with positive pressure ventilations.

3. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, at what apical pulse did the nurse decide to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the health care provider?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is a reason to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and its administration is based on heart rate parameters. A pulse rate below 90 beats/min indicates bradycardia. In pediatric patients, bradycardia below this threshold may be a sign of toxicity or potential adverse effects of digoxin, necessitating withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent pulse rates above the threshold for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child.

4. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of

• A. pulmonary infection
• B. right-to-left shunt of blood
• C. decreased workload on the left side of the heart
• D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent increased pulmonary vascular congestion, which can lead to congestive heart failure and respiratory distress. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but rather a result of other factors. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a characteristic of a different heart condition (e.g., Tetralogy of Fallot) and not specifically associated with PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a typical complication of PDA but rather a consequence of left-to-right shunting that can cause volume overload in the pulmonary circulation.

5. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:

• A. nondisjunction.
• B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
• C. genomic imprinting.
• D. autosomal dominant inheritance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division that leads to the presence of an extra chromosome 21. This additional chromosome alters the normal genetic makeup, resulting in the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Therefore, the correct answer is nondisjunction (Choice A). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Trisomy 21 is not caused by X-linked recessive inheritance, genomic imprinting, or autosomal dominant inheritance. Understanding the specific genetic mechanism involved in Trisomy 21 is crucial for grasping the basis of this chromosomal disorder.

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