Nursing Elites

1. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

4. A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?

• A. Flat rash on the client's ankle
• B. Non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter
• C. Ecchymosis on the client's left shoulder
• D. Petechiae on the client's right anterior thigh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Pain in the affected leg
• B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Swelling in the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism. A pulmonary embolism is a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs and can be life-threatening. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent further complications. Pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT itself but do not pose the same level of immediate danger as the potential for a pulmonary embolism.

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