Nursing Elites

1. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

2. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

• A. Schedule a support session for the client.
• B. Explain the techniques of esophageal speech.
• C. Review the use of artificial larynx with the client.
• D. Determine the client's reading ability.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

3. A client with a terminal illness asks the nurse about what would happen if she arrived at the emergency department and had difficulty breathing, despite declining resuscitation in her living will. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. We will determine who the durable power of attorney for health care form has designated.
• B. We will apply oxygen through a tube in your nose.
• C. We will ask if you have changed your mind.
• D. We will insert a breathing tube while we evaluate your condition.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide oxygen through a tube in the client's nose. Oxygen therapy can offer comfort and support breathing without being considered resuscitative. Therefore, this intervention aligns with the client's wish to decline resuscitation. Option A is not directly related to addressing the client's immediate breathing difficulty. Option C does not acknowledge the client's living will decision. Option D involves a more invasive procedure that may go against the client's wishes to decline resuscitation.

4. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine the client's sleep and activity patterns
• B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
• C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
• D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the client's sleep and activity patterns is crucial in understanding the factors contributing to the sleep difficulties and headaches. By evaluating these patterns, the nurse can identify triggers, stressors, and lifestyle habits that may be impacting the client's sleep quality and overall well-being. This assessment will guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate care plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Option B is not appropriate as it focuses solely on providing medication without addressing underlying issues. Option C is premature as a thorough assessment should precede any referrals for specialized studies. Option D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide more targeted coping strategies.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

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