Nursing Elites

1. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

2. A client is receiving morphine via PCA infusion device after abdominal surgery. Which of the following statements indicates that the client knows how to use the device?

• A. I'll wait to use the device until it's absolutely necessary.
• B. I'll be careful about pushing the button too much to avoid an overdose.
• C. I should tell the nurse if the pain doesn't stop while I am using this device.
• D. I will ask my adult child to push the dose button when I am sleeping.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it demonstrates that the client understands the importance of communicating with the nurse if the pain persists while using the PCA device. This is crucial as it ensures proper pain management and monitoring. Choices A and B are incorrect because delaying the use of the device until necessary or being cautious about pushing the button too much do not necessarily reflect understanding of using the PCA device effectively. Choice D is incorrect as having someone else, like an adult child, push the dose button goes against the principle of the client self-administering the medication through the PCA device.

3. A client has been tentatively diagnosed with Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism). Which of these findings noted on the initial nursing assessment requires quick intervention by the nurse?

• A. A report of 10 pounds weight loss in the last month
• B. A comment by the client 'I just can't sit still.'
• C. The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets
• D. A report of the sudden onset of irritability in the past 2 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The appearance of eyeballs that appear to 'pop' out of the client's eye sockets, known as exophthalmos, requires quick intervention as it is a severe symptom of Graves' disease. Exophthalmos can indicate an acute condition and may lead to serious complications such as optic nerve damage or corneal ulceration. Weight loss, restlessness, and irritability are common manifestations of hyperthyroidism but do not pose immediate risks compared to the ocular complications associated with exophthalmos.

4. In an emergency situation, the charge nurse on the night shift at an urgent care center has to deal with admitting clients of higher acuity than usual due to a large fire in the area. Which style of leadership and decision-making would be best in this circumstance?

• A. Assume a decision-making role
• B. Seek input from staff
• C. Use a non-directive approach
• D. Shared decision-making with others

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation such as dealing with patients of higher acuity due to a large fire, it is crucial for the charge nurse to assume a decision-making role. This style of leadership allows for quick and efficient decision-making to manage the increased acuity of patients effectively. Seeking input from staff (Choice B) may delay critical decisions needed in emergencies. Using a non-directive approach (Choice C) or shared decision-making with others (Choice D) may not be suitable in urgent situations where immediate actions are required to address the high acuity of patients.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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