a nurse is caring for a client who asks what their snellen eye test results mean the clients visual acuity is 2030 which of the following responses sh
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HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

2. What is the first step a healthcare professional should take when preparing to provide tracheostomy care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is the initial step a healthcare professional should take when preparing to provide tracheostomy care. This step is crucial to prevent the transmission of pathogens and reduce the risk of infection to the client. By cleansing the hands, the healthcare professional ensures patient safety. While gathering equipment, explaining the procedure, and assessing the client are essential components of tracheostomy care, they should occur after performing hand hygiene to maintain aseptic technique and minimize the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the client.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing an adult client who has been immobile for the past 3 weeks. The healthcare professional should identify that which of the following findings requires further intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema on pressure points indicates potential skin breakdown due to prolonged immobility. It requires immediate intervention to prevent pressure ulcers. Lower-extremity pulse strength of 2+ is a normal finding, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. Fluid intake of 3,000 mL per day is within the normal range and promotes hydration. A bowel movement every other day is a reasonable frequency for some individuals and does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.

4. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs). Which action will the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action when assessing an immobile patient for deep vein thromboses (DVTs) is to measure the calf circumference of both legs. This helps in detecting swelling or changes that may indicate the presence of a DVT. Removing elastic stockings every 4 hours (Choice A) is not necessary and can disrupt circulation. Lightly rubbing the lower leg for redness and tenderness (Choice C) can potentially dislodge a clot if present. Dorsiflexing the foot while assessing for patient discomfort (Choice D) is not a specific assessment for DVT and may not provide relevant information in this context.

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