HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. A community health nurse is planning a health promotion campaign. What should be the first step?
- A. Developing educational materials
- B. Assessing the needs of the community
- C. Implementing interventions
- D. Evaluating outcomes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in planning a health promotion campaign is to assess the needs of the community. By understanding the community's specific health needs, preferences, and resources, the nurse can tailor the campaign effectively. Developing educational materials (choice A) should come after assessing needs to ensure relevance. Implementing interventions (choice C) and evaluating outcomes (choice D) should also follow the assessment phase to measure the impact of the campaign accurately.
2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
- B. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
- C. I should take my warfarin at bedtime.
- D. I should avoid eating foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.
3. A healthcare professional is providing care to a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the professional take to prevent complications?
- A. Clean around the stoma with povidone-iodine.
- B. Maintain sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
- C. Use clean technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
- D. Change tracheostomy ties weekly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential in preventing infections and complications. Option A is incorrect because povidone-iodine may be too harsh for cleaning around the stoma and can lead to skin irritation. Option C is incorrect because suctioning a tracheostomy should be done using sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens. Option D is incorrect as tracheostomy ties need to be changed more frequently, usually every 1-2 days, to prevent skin breakdown and infection.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed dapagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Genital infections
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. Its mechanism of action involves promoting glucose excretion through the urine, creating a favorable environment for microbial growth in the genital area. Monitoring for genital infections is crucial when a client is prescribed dapagliflozin. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of dapagliflozin since it does not directly lower blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia (choice C) is also unlikely as dapagliflozin is intended to help lower blood glucose levels. Nausea (choice D) is a less common side effect of dapagliflozin compared to genital infections.
5. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?
- A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
- B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
- C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
- D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.